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Hi Thomas Your quotes from Stamps and Boyarin, et al were quite insightful 1) GRAMMATICALLY JOHN 1:1C IS CLEAR. CONTEXTUALLY IT IS NOT. HOWEVER...WHICH CONTEXT DOES ONE THEN USE TO TRANSLATE IT? I noticed John Stamps renders the inarticulated John 1:1c as though it was articulated and thus...

I APOLOGIZE. THIS POST IS ACTUALLY IN THE WRONG THREAD (I HAD WRITTEN IT FOR A THREAD ON JOHN 1:1 BUT WILL LEAVE IT HERE AS IT RELATES TO QUOTES THOMAS USED FROM THIS THREAD. Hi Thomas Your quotes from Stamps and Boyarin, et al were quite insightful 1) GRAMMATICALLY JOHN 1:1C IS CLEAR...

Hi Thomas. Thank you for the additional clarifications and quotes from Hart. 1) HARTS THEORY AS TO WHY THE GRAMMAR OF JOHN 1:1C DOESN'T MEAN WHAT JOHN WROTE DOESN'T WORK Thomas quoted Hart as saying: "when two nominatives are placed in apposition and only one of them lacks an article, that...

Thomas mentions in the opening post: “As Hart points out, "the article is omitted in the latter case simply because the Word theos functions as a predicate there, and typically in Greek the predicate would need no article. “ While I certainly agree with Thomas’ comment that the prologue is not...

The Light Within said in the opening post: “I don't remember if we had a thread discussing the Ethiopian canon, larger than that of the other Orthodox churches” Thomas replied (post #2) “The additional New Testament texts were known, just not considered canonical, being after the Apostolic...

Caritas said in the opening post: “Ask me anything about my beliefs, if you want I will do my best to answer” Hi Caritas. I admit that I have always been more interested in historical and ancient Christianity more than the later, more “modern” Christian movements and so know little about the...