M
mojobadshah
Guest
What is the earliest source(s) of New Testament material apart from copies or fragments of the New Testament itself?
Early Christian authors referring to the New Testament scriptures are themselves found in manuscripts which tend to be later than our earliest manuscripts of the New Testament themselves, so there is always some question about whether there has been tampering since.
What I mean is: we have manuscripts of many New Testament books from the 3rd century onward, but the books were written rather earlier than the first manuscript that we are lucky enough to have preserved. How much earlier? Well, for that it would be helpful to look at writers from before the 3rd century who have already seen these books: for example, Ignatius writing around 100 quoted a lot from material we find in the gospels of Matthew or Luke-- or did he? The problem is that the earliest manuscripts we have of the epistles of Ignatius are from 10th century, and a lot of those late manuscripts contain forgeries that Ignatius certainly never wrote-- so how do we know what Ignatius actually wrote in 100? There are some very cynical scholars who throw up their hands about the epistles of Ignatius, and say that maybe there isn't a single one of those epistles that is really genuine (my own opinion does not go that far, but it is certainly a problem).Could you clarify what you mean here. I mean wouldn't authors referring to the NT naturally be mentioned after the NT was written?
What I mean is: we have manuscripts of many New Testament books from the 3rd century onward, but the books were written rather earlier than the first manuscript that we are lucky enough to have preserved.
What I mean is: we have manuscripts of many New Testament books from the 3rd century onward, but the books were written rather earlier than the first manuscript that we are lucky enough to have preserved. How much earlier? Well, for that it would be helpful to look at writers from before the 3rd century who have already seen these books: for example, Ignatius writing around 100 quoted a lot from material we find in the gospels of Matthew or Luke-- or did he? The problem is that the earliest manuscripts we have of the epistles of Ignatius are from 10th century, and a lot of those late manuscripts contain forgeries that Ignatius certainly never wrote-- so how do we know what Ignatius actually wrote in 100?
There is a postage-stamp-sized fragment, with only a couple words on each line preserved, which matches up with a section of the trial before Pilate, from the gospel of John. This fragment is dated 125, more or less. The first texts with nearly complete books are from the early 3rd century; nearly complete New Testaments exist from the early 4th century.When was the first manuscript we have preserved written?
I mentioned Ignatius because it is the most extreme example of the problem. Clement is a better case: "1st Clement" (his letter to the Corinthians) appears in some New Testaments (before the list of books was standardized, some books that are not now considered "canon" would sometimes be included) from, I believe, 4th century (I'll look it up); there is a "2nd Clement" which is not actually a "forgery" (the text never claims to be by Clement; it is by someone who knows 1st Clement, and quotes from it, so somebody decided wrongly that this was by Clement also) and some "Preachings of Clement" etc. which are forgeries (claiming to be by Clement, but not), but most scholars have not found this to be a good case for doubting the authenticity of 1st Clement c. 90 AD. Other cases are intermediate.Does the same type of thing go for the other sources you mentioned?
Paper doesn't survive very well; it is quite rare to get very early copies of almost ANY ancient text: our oldest copy of Julius Caesar's "Gallic Wars" is from the 10th century, for example; the Buddhist scriptures, the nearest analogue, are first preserved in some stone carvings (a couple verses only) on the walls of king Ashoka's palace (about 400 years after the Buddha) and then not on paper until several centuries later. The Qumran texts ("Dead Sea Scrolls"; Old Testament books and other miscellaneous religious literature) were intentionally preserved in a favorable desert environment, in sealed jars; and we get some old papyri from Egypt, again saved for us by the desert climate, and sometimes intentionally sealed; this is the kind of thing that is necessary to get something really old on paper ("Sinaiticus", a 4th century Bible with a nearly-complete New Testament, was from a monastery up on Mt. Sinai in the deep desert).When do references begin to appear in originals or copies or genuine evidence that aren't from long after they were said to have been made?
That happens too. I mentioned "Papias" as an early source, but we don't actually have any manuscript whatsoever of the book Papias wrote; we have instead quotations from it in the "Ecclesiastical History" of Eusebius (writing in the 4th century-- of course, the earliest manuscript of Eusebius is not that old). We believe the quotations from Papias are genuine precisely because they do not say what Eusebius would really rather have had them say: if Eusebius was making it up, he would make up something different!Are some of these references references of references?
Right hand doesn't see what the left hand is doing?There is a postage-stamp-sized fragment, with only a couple words on each line preserved, which matches up with a section of the trial before Pilate, from the gospel of John. This fragment is dated 125, more or less. The first texts with nearly complete books are from the early 3rd century; nearly complete New Testaments exist from the early 4th century.
I mentioned Ignatius because it is the most extreme example of the problem. Clement is a better case: "1st Clement" (his letter to the Corinthians) appears in some New Testaments (before the list of books was standardized, some books that are not now considered "canon" would sometimes be included) from, I believe, 4th century (I'll look it up); there is a "2nd Clement" which is not actually a "forgery" (the text never claims to be by Clement; it is by someone who knows 1st Clement, and quotes from it, so somebody decided wrongly that this was by Clement also) and some "Preachings of Clement" etc. which are forgeries (claiming to be by Clement, but not), but most scholars have not found this to be a good case for doubting the authenticity of 1st Clement c. 90 AD. Other cases are intermediate.
Paper doesn't survive very well; it is quite rare to get very early copies of almost ANY ancient text: our oldest copy of Julius Caesar's "Gallic Wars" is from the 10th century, for example; the Buddhist scriptures, the nearest analogue, are first preserved in some stone carvings (a couple verses only) on the walls of king Ashoka's palace (about 400 years after the Buddha) and then not on paper until several centuries later. The Qumran texts ("Dead Sea Scrolls"; Old Testament books and other miscellaneous religious literature) were intentionally preserved in a favorable desert environment, in sealed jars; and we get some old papyri from Egypt, again saved for us by the desert climate, and sometimes intentionally sealed; this is the kind of thing that is necessary to get something really old on paper ("Sinaiticus", a 4th century Bible with a nearly-complete New Testament, was from a monastery up on Mt. Sinai in the deep desert).
That happens too. I mentioned "Papias" as an early source, but we don't actually have any manuscript whatsoever of the book Papias wrote; we have instead quotations from it in the "Ecclesiastical History" of Eusebius (writing in the 4th century-- of course, the earliest manuscript of Eusebius is not that old). We believe the quotations from Papias are genuine precisely because they do not say what Eusebius would really rather have had them say: if Eusebius was making it up, he would make up something different!
No, Eusebius sees the problems and makes excuses for why Papias isn't meaning what he's saying-- but he does preserve what Papias actually said, which is nice of him.Right hand doesn't see what the left hand is doing?
The Jews as well as Christians in Egypt had the widest conception of "canon"; the Septuagint that became the Catholic/Orthodox "Old Testament" was originally a loose and wide collection of holy texts by Jews who did not fence off the "Writings" as strictly as the Palestinian Jews who decided the canon of the current Tanakh (the council of Yavneh c. 90-100 had questions about Esther and Daniel, even some about Ezekiel; but Alexandrian Bibles often contained not just 1st and 2nd Maccabees but even a 3rd and 4th Maccabees etc.) The Ethiopian canon is the largest of any church: their Old Testament also contains 1st Enoch (mentioned by Jude) and Jubilees (unknown from any other source until the Dead Sea Scrolls were found); their New Testament contains the Shepherd of Hermas (mentioned in the Muratorian Canon as a worthy book, but too late to be "scripture") and a 2nd Acts (visits by the apostles to Ethiopia, and the early Ethiopian saints), but not 2nd Peter (which is also not canon in the Syrian church). Comparisons of their texts of Enoch and Jubilees with those found at Qumran indicates that the Ethiopians have done a good job of preserving the old texts without distortion.The Ethiopians and the Coptic scriptures...can we focus on them and their "age"?
I mean, whilst Romans were arguing, others were preserving...