Jesus and the Blind Man

Leveller

Leveller

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I have long been puzzled by the story in Mark, of Jesus spitting in the eye of the blind man. There is a similar story in John, I am not sure if it is the same case or not.

Now Jesus can raise the dead and he can walk on water and he does these truly incredible things without props or gimmicks. So why the spit? Something about this tale has never felt right with me.

I see from the 'Bible Inspectors' website that I am not the only one to find this strange. None of the proposed answers there were very convincing IMO.
Anybody have any thoughts on this?
 
Why did Jesus choose to do what he did?
 
RJM said:
Well, he's not around to ask. Why do you think?
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Why the snide comment? As for my thoughts, nothing other than mentioned.
I have no idea why a question about scripture should make you like this but rude moderator syndrome seems to be quite common. It is a shame, I had grown fond of this forum. Goodbye.
 
Spit has antiseptic properties. The ancients belief in that must have been stronger. And Jesus was a man of his time.
 
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Leveller said:
Why the snide comment? As for my thoughts, nothing other than mentioned.
I have no idea why a question about scripture should make you like this but rude moderator syndrome seems to be quite common. It is a shame, I had grown fond of this forum. Goodbye.
Click to expand...
Nothing to do with being a moderator.
How was it snide? You ask why ' the son of God' does something? I say how shoud I know and turn the question back on you?

That's snide and rude?
Anyway
 
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Aupmanyav said:
Spit has antiseptic properties. The ancients belief in that must have been stronger. And Jesus was a man of his time.
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Well @badger suggests perhaps the man was pretending to be blind, so he could beg money; and when he went to Jesus for 'healing' that Jesus played with him a bit, but without exposing him?
 
Leveller said:
have long been puzzled by the story in Mark, of Jesus spitting in the eye of the blind man. There is a similar story in John, I am not sure if it is the same case or not.

Now Jesus can raise the dead and he can walk on water and he does these truly incredible things without props or gimmicks. So why the spit? Something about this tale has never felt right with me.

I see from the 'Bible Inspectors' website that I am not the only one to find this strange. None of the proposed answers there were very convincing IMO.
Anybody have any thoughts on this?
Click to expand...
Mark Chapter 8
22 And he cometh to Bethsaida; and they bring a blind man unto him, and besought him to touch him.

23 And he took the blind man by the hand, and led him out of the town; and when he had spit on his eyes, and put his hands upon him, he asked him if he saw ought.

24 And he looked up, and said, I see men as trees, walking.

25 After that he put his hands again upon his eyes, and made him look up: and he was restored, and saw every man clearly...

No props, no gimmicks, Jesus used his own spittle to clear the blind man's eyes and by laying on of hands, restored his sight.
 
Leveller said:
Why the snide comment? As for my thoughts, nothing other than mentioned.
I have no idea why a question about scripture should make you like this but rude moderator syndrome seems to be quite common. It is a shame, I had grown fond of this forum. Goodbye.
Click to expand...
And we've grown fond of you, @Leveller! Hope to see you again some time.
 
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