dailogue is the best said:
1. you said may be Muhammed was a prophet, but not one sent to us...how do you know?
because jewish prophecy ceased in 313BCE, when the last of the jewish prophefts, haggai, zechariah and malakhi, died, all within the space of one month. less exalted forms of Divine inspiration, such as
ruah ha-qodesh, continued subsequently, but these are not to be termed
neviut, which is the word for prophecy. the prophecies of the Torah and TaNaKh are intended for the jewish people, not for all humanity, thus the prophets of judaism are addressing us. it is a complete, integrated message and requires neither supplement nor updating. for muhammad to have been a jewish prophet, also, he would have had to submit his claim of prophethood to the authority of the sanhedrin, as well as meet other criteria. hence it can be concluded that we do not consider his message to be intended for us by G!D.
2.why do you think God need to change the divine plan.....dont you think His message is the same with all prophets?
not at all. this is an islamic view, not a jewish one. the message of jeremiah is very different from that of joshua and the message of solomon is very different from that of ezekiel. G!D may well have different plans for different groups of people (as indeed i believe the Qur'an maintains) and the mission of the jewish people is clear: to keep the Torah and be a light to the world - *not* to convert everyone to judaism or to impose a universal vision of religion. G!D does not change, but people do, hence the need to speak to different people in different ways. do you speak to your friends differently from people you don't know? from your family? from your work colleagues? how much more so should we expect G!D to so do, Who is "closer than your jugular vein", as you guys say.
3.This is I think your view about Muhammed(pbuh)....what is the Jewish view?
there's no one jewish view, other than that he isn't a jewish prophet and hence his message does not apply to us.
4.the Quran tells us Moses fortold about the coming of Muhammed in the Torah?Does any text in the Torah talk about that?
no, because as far as we can see, moses did no such thing. in fact, anything the Qur'an has to say about the Torah would hardly be . as i understand it, the name "muhammad" is linguistically akin to one of the hebrew word meaning "desirable", so one can try and make out a case for references based on that, but the trouble with that is that you end up with some quite silly ones in NaKh, like 1 kings 20:6, ezekiel 24:16 and 24:21, to say nothing of hosea 9:6. however, it does not appear in the Torah itself as far as i am aware. if you have an example that says otherwise, i am happy to discuss it.
b'shalom
bananabrain