DoubtingThomas
Member
Many people would say absolutely!
My response to that is: How is that possible? Historically religion was used as a control mechanism for the government, so how can we be sure that the government leaders at the time a particular translation did not require the translation to insinuate a specific meaning? For example- The bible claims the Israelites were slaves in Egypt yet history tells us that they were not; they were first allies with Egypt protecting the area between the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea. This only changed when a Pharaoh decided the Israelites were to powerful and decided to use them as paid labor – yes paid labor which means they were not slaves.
My response to that is: How is that possible? Historically religion was used as a control mechanism for the government, so how can we be sure that the government leaders at the time a particular translation did not require the translation to insinuate a specific meaning? For example- The bible claims the Israelites were slaves in Egypt yet history tells us that they were not; they were first allies with Egypt protecting the area between the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea. This only changed when a Pharaoh decided the Israelites were to powerful and decided to use them as paid labor – yes paid labor which means they were not slaves.