Is Cyrus "his anointed" a translation from "his Messiah"

very king (David, Solomon, etc.) and every priest (Aaron, Zadok, etc.) underwent this ritual to assume office. The same was true in a lot of other cultures as well: in India, the sacred oil is called ghee from the same root as English grease or Greek christos (it has that "weak liquid" L/R that I have mentioned before, here vanishing in the Sanskrit though preserved in English and Greek; Avestan should have a similar word, but I don't know offhand what it is); but aside from use in ritually anointing a new king or priest, it is also mentioned in the "Laws of Manu" as a nice thing for a wife to do for her husband after he has a bath (that is, in India too it could just be a "massage" rather than a "Messiah").
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Do the aforesaid names fit the description of a Messiah in terms of the Jewish concept of the Messiah after the Babylonian Captivity?

Also wikipedia says that evidence of this post-exilic concept of the Messiah can be found between Isaiah 24-34, but I can't really see it.

I do see it in reference to Cyrus. I also see it in Daniel when the author mentions "the Son of man." Does anyone know what wikipedia is referring to?
 
Would the answer to my question be that Isaiah 45.1 was actually supposed to have been a prophecy implying that Cyrus would show up and save the Jews whereas there were no prophecies pertaining to the arrival of the previously designated Messiahs? If this is the case would the term messiah have taken on additional meaning-meaning something like "anointed one who would come" instead of just "anointed one"?
 
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