The Archeology of the Kingdom of God: Diving a Bit Deeper into a Baha'i Approach to Metaphysics

Likewise, as Litwa later points out, contra N.T. Wright and pro the growing consensus of scholars who work on ancient theories of resurrection (or what Litwa calls “corporeal immortalization”), Jesus’ restoration to physical life (the Gospels do not leave a corpse in the tomb) is the same preliminary to divine glorification or bodily deification that heroes like Asklepios, Herakles, and Romulus had received.

Exactly.

Armstrong admits Jesus' resurrection is not unique. He points out that the transformation of Jesus to physical life is no different to the process of divine glorification or bodily deification experienced by these heroes, which makes me think Mark is writing for a certain audience, such as Gentile converts and Romans. The use of familiar Greco-Roman motifs and narratives was a deliberate strategy to engage and persuade them.

Again, the point is not anything so crude as to say that the Gospel writers simply “borrowed” something from the pagan imaginary and slapped it onto Jesus; but it is rather to point out that for Early Christian language about Jesus, as a species of Early Jewish ethnoreligious language, itself just part of the broader Greco-Roman cultural web, to have any kind of positive content for the people to whom that language was addressed, then what happened to Jesus had to have had some kind of parallel point of reference in wider religious discourse.

All he is saying here is that while the Gospel writers used familiar Greco-Roman concepts and stories to explain Jesus' resurrection, they weren't simply copying pagan myths. Instead, they were adapting these ideas to fit their own unique understanding of Jesus and his significance - whatever that may be.

Dr. Davudi's perspective further illuminates this point. He highlights the challenge of expressing spiritual experiences in physical terms, suggesting that the use of such language is often a limitation imposed by the nature of human language itself and the intrinsic development of human beings over vast periods of time. The Gospel writers were faced with the challenge of conveying the reality of Jesus after his death using the limited language and concepts available to them. They did this by drawing on the cultural and religious resources of their time. The stories were shaped by the beliefs and expectations of the audience, and that the details of the narratives may not be strictly historical.

Jesus can, and does, for the Gospel writers, surpass all other possible rivals,

For the Gospel writers. Wouldn't his audience say Jesus is just like the other guys?

but figures like St. Justin Martyr had no problem, as Litwa points out, simply admitting that what Christians claim to have happened in, through, to, and for Jesus is “nothing at all new” or out of the ordinary beyond what was ordinarily predicated of the demigods in Greek religion (Justin Martyr, 1 Apol. 21.1-3).

That's right. "Nothing at all new" here.
The basic principle here is that the mystery of Christ is unintelligible if it is wholly dissimilar to everything else culturally.

At this point we have to ask ourselves: "In what way is Christ's resurrection dissimilar at all?" LOL!

If Christ has no parallel in world mythology, philosophy, and religion, then one has only succeeded in making Jesus perfectly inaccessible to all human conceptualization.

From an essay on Eclectic Orthodoxy

Doesn't this risk alienating Christ from modernity? After all, we today don't talk like ancient Greco-Roman people - with the exception of Christians today that continue to carry on the language of ancient Greco-Roman intrinsic perspectives in their language.
 
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Well it seems not exactly to me. Of the three examples offered, they are cases of apotheosis, but not physical resurrection, are they?

He points out that the transformation of Jesus to physical life is no different to the process of divine glorification or bodily deification experienced by these heroes,
Of course it is different. 'Bodily deification' simply refers to a reference point in the mind of another, not to physical resurrection.

All he is saying here is that while the Gospel writers used familiar Greco-Roman concepts and stories to explain Jesus' resurrection, they weren't simply copying pagan myths. Instead, they were adapting these ideas to fit their own unique understanding of Jesus and his significance - whatever that may be.
Yes. Explaining a mystery and a miracle as best they could.

The Gospel writers were faced with the challenge of conveying the reality of Jesus after his death using the limited language and concepts available to them. They did this by drawing on the cultural and religious resources of their time. The stories were shaped by the beliefs and expectations of the audience, and that the details of the narratives may not be strictly historical.
But the writers believed Jesus was physically resurrected. And the details may not be strictly historical ... but they may equally be just that.


For the Gospel writers. Wouldn't his audience say Jesus is just like the other guys?
Nope.

At this point we have to ask ourselves: "In what way is Christ's resurrection dissimilar at all?" LOL!
I think I might be laughing last, on that point.

Doesn't this risk alienating Christ from modernity? After all, we today don't talk like ancient Greco-Roman people - with the exception of Christians today that continue to carry on the language of ancient Greco-Roman intrinsic perspectives in their language.
No. It rather signifies the eternal transcendent truths and actualities that were realised in time, between the Incarnation and the Ascension.

Dismiss that, and you've lost sight of anything beyond the physical.
 
I sense we're walking back and forth over the same ground here, I see little value in continuing.

We have different takes on Biblical events, interpretations and significances ... it's unlikely continuing this dialogue will change that...

So, until later, au revoir!
 
Well it seems not exactly to me. Of the three examples offered, they are cases of apotheosis, but not physical resurrection, are they?

Endsjø clearly establishes that Greek resurrection concepts consistently involved the physical body, even if transformed.

In the case of Achiles . . .

"We have already learned how there was a general belief among Greeks that people really could be raised from the dead and that when this happened, flesh and bones were always included. When Achilles, too, is revived again, we find that there is nothing indicating anything but that this also was the case with him. As no longer mortal, Achilles must have had his physical nature severely altered, his flesh mortified so that it was just like that of the gods, immortal and incorruptible."
-Dag Øistein Endsjø, Greek Resurrection Beliefs and the Success of Christianity

In the case of Romulus . . .

"Various Greek sources also considered the first Roman king, Romulus, to have been made physically immortal as he disappeared mysteriously, when in the middle of the day “the sun failed and night came down upon them, not with peace and quite, but with awful peals of thunder and furious blasts driving rain from every quarter.”373According to Dionysius of Halicarnassus it was the king’s disappearance during this “sudden darkness” and “violent storm” that made many believe that he had been “caught up into heaven by his father, Ares.”374 As usual the decisive factor that made people believe this was that “no part of his body or fragment of his clothing remained to be seen.”375 As no part of the body was left behind, people were free to believe that his entire body had been physically immortalized. As Plutarch complained, Romulus’ disappearance contributed to “the masses” believing that he was among the “good men” whose “bodies” went “with their souls to heaven.”
-Dag Øistein Endsjø, Greek Resurrection Beliefs and the Success of Christianity


Litwa agrees.

Armstrong's statement, aligning with the growing consensus of scholars, explicitly links Jesus' resurrection to concepts of "corporeal immortalization" found in ancient Greek thought. This implies a connection between Jesus' resurrection and the physical transformation associated with "bodily deification" in these traditions.

Of course it is different. 'Bodily deification' simply refers to a reference point in the mind of another, not to physical resurrection.

In the context of ancient Greek thought, "bodily deification" often implied a transformation of the physical body, making it immortal and divine. This could involve a physical ascent to the heavens, as seen in the case of Romulus, or a transformation of the physical form, as suggested in the case of Achilles. The core idea often involved a change in the physical state of the individual.

Yes. Explaining a mystery and a miracle as best they could.

The existence of widespread similar events in the ancient world would undermine the claim of this event being a miracle.

But the writers believed Jesus was physically resurrected. And the details may not be strictly historical ... but they may equally be just that.

The historical significance of Jesus lies not primarily in the literal details of his resurrection, but rather in the resurrection of his teachings and their transformative impact on humanity. As Abdu'l-Baha eloquently states, "The reality of Christ, which consists in His teachings, His bounties, His perfections, and His spiritual power," was initially obscured, much like a lifeless body. However, through the dedicated efforts of his followers, these teachings were revived and revitalized, demonstrating the enduring power of Christ's message. This spiritual resurrection, the historical implementation of Christ's teachings, is the true focus and the most significant aspect of his legacy. Other theological speculations about resurrection are largely irrelevant.
 
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N.T Wright's Resurrection of the Son of God argues that the resurrection of Jesus had no clear parallel in ancient times. More specifically, to the point of deifying emperors and their souls ascending to heaven, he writes in summary:
“…who were the dead? They were humans who, through quite extraordinary lives, had shown themselves either worthy of translation to divine status or perhaps to have been all along a divine being in disguise. Where were they? In the heavenly home of the immortal gods; perhaps among the stars. They had not, however, been raised from the dead. Cicero is quite clear and completely in the mainstream of greco-roman thought: the body is a prison-house. A necessary one for the moment; but nobody in their right mind, having got rid of it, would want it or something like it back again. At no point in the spectrum of option about life after death did the ancient pagan world envisage that the denials of Homer, Aeschylus and the rest would be overthrown. Resurrection was not an option”.
(p.60.)

“The fact that dead people do not ordinarily rise [from the dead] is itself part of early Christian belief…The early Christians insisted that what had happened to Jesus was precisely something new; was, indeed, the start of a whole new mode of existence, a new creation. The fact that Jesus’ resurrection was, and remains, without analogy is not an objection to the early Christian claim. It is a part of the claim itself” (Ibid, p712 emphasis in the text).

I'm starting to think "N.T. Wrong" might be a more fitting moniker. ;)
 
This spiritual resurrection, the historical implementation of Christ's teachings, is the true focus and the most significant aspect of his legacy. Other theological speculations about resurrection are largely irrelevant.
This is, of course, where we disagree, and where, it seems to be, the singular aspects of any Revelation are played down, until what constitutes actual revelation is generalised to what was before, therefore not a revelation at all ... by following this pattern, every authentic revelation can be explained away and emptied of meaning, their actual metaphysical import remaining occluded and unseen.

I happen to believe, according to the nature of the Infinite and Divine Plenitude, God never 'reveals' the same thing twice, because that would be a 'lesser good'.

What God reveals is and will always be perceived in its particularities, its 'singularity', and in discounting that, one glosses over those very things through which the full depth and meaning of the revelation is lost.

A Revelation by definition is that which is not the result of a natural historical process – it transcends the process. Revelation is always a rupture. It is couched in terms of the historical process, of course, it has to be, or it would be completely unintelligible to its witnesses, as is argued above. Were it the fruit of that historical process, it would not be revelation but realisation, which is entirely different and entirely within the scope of human intellectual activity.

I used the word 'singularity' above, and looking at a scientific definition:
"a point at which a function takes an infinite value, especially in space–time when matter is infinitely dense, such as at the centre of a black hole."
And I find that definition apposite – those elements particular to a given revelation are the points that 'take on an infinite value' – and by rendering all much of a likeness, that value is overlooked and that horizon remains veiled.

The 'rending of the veil of the temple' is a clear indicator that everything has changed, that the old tropes may be used, but they now convey entirely new and different meanings.

+++

I would also voice a note of caution. The basic premise of the argument can be applied to the Baha'i Faith (indeed any faith) and thereby claim that the Bab, Baha'u'llah and so on are nothing more than derivative steps along an historical process, in a sense inevitable, and do not constitute anything new or insightful with regard to what has gone before.
 
This is, of course, where we disagree, and where, it seems to be, the singular aspects of any Revelation are played down, until what constitutes actual revelation is generalised to what was before, therefore not a revelation at all ... by following this pattern, every authentic revelation can be explained away and emptied of meaning, their actual metaphysical import remaining occluded and unseen.

God's transcendent reality is not confined to human language (e.g., Aramaic, Greek, Arabic, Persian) or specific cultural worldviews. Scripture is not identical to God's speech, which is a transcendent reality beyond human language, but rather a human interpretation and expression of it.

As Baha'u'llah states, "All that the sages and mystics have said or written have never exceeded...the limitations to which man’s finite mind hath been strictly subjected...they can never transcend that which is the creature of their own conceptions." Similarly, Abdu'l-Baha explains that "all these attributes, names, praises and eulogies apply to the Places of Manifestation; and all that we imagine and suppose beside them is mere imagination."

This does not mean that revelation is reduced to mere human invention. Rather, it acknowledges the inherent limitations of human expression when attempting to convey divine truths.

The Báb's concept of tajjali (reflection) further clarifies this: while God's essence remains unknowable, we perceive Him through reflections in the world, most perfectly through the Manifestations of God. These reflections, though adapted to different cultural contexts, are not illusions but real manifestations of divine attributes. Finally, the concept of irtifa explains how each revelation simultaneously cancels and elevates previous understandings, building upon them while also introducing new dimensions of truth. This progressive nature of revelation ensures that divine guidance remains relevant and accessible to humanity throughout history, fulfilling and perfecting previous dispensations without emptying them of their original meaning.

I happen to believe, according to the nature of the Infinite and Divine Plenitude, God never 'reveals' the same thing twice, because that would be a 'lesser good'.

Your assertion that God never reveals the same thing twice because it would be a "lesser good" raises a question about divine communication, doesn't it? How can God effectively convey new truths to humanity if every revelation is entirely novel and disconnected from existing understanding? You yourself acknowledge that revelation must be "couched in terms of the historical process" to be intelligible. This creates a clear tension: How can something that "transcends the process" simultaneously be understood within that process? How can something utterly discontinuous be communicated through continuous, historical means like language and cultural concepts?

Initially, your argument, echoing N.T. Wright, emphasized the uniqueness of Christ's resurrection, claiming it had no parallel in Greco-Roman culture. This argued a complete lack of precedent. However, scholars like Litwa and Endsjø, and even Armstrong, have demonstrated the prevalence of similar resurrection concepts in that context. Armstrong wrote: "'Jesus’ restoration to physical life…is the same preliminary to divine glorification or bodily deification that heroes like Asklepios, Herakles, and Romulus had received," which contradicts Wright's claim of uniqueness.

This brings us to an inconsistency: If something is truly unique and without parallel, it cannot simultaneously have cultural resonance. These are mutually exclusive conditions. For a revelation to be understood, it must have some degree of connection to existing frameworks. Yet, you seem to be arguing that the resurrection both relies on such parallels for intelligibility and fundamentally transcends them. This creates a paradox: It would be like saying, "This is completely unlike anything you've ever seen, but you need to understand it by comparing it to things you've already seen."

The central problem is the ambiguity surrounding the necessary degree of parallel. Are you arguing for a parallel in the basic concept of physical resurrection in a glorified body in the Greco-Roman world, or in the specific meaning and implications of Jesus's resurrection? If the parallel is merely conceptual, it doesn't explain how the unique meaning of Christ's resurrection is conveyed. If, on the other hand, the parallel extends to the meaning and implications, then the claim of absolute uniqueness is significantly weakened. The fact that revelation is "couched in terms of the historical process," as you acknowledge, necessitates interaction with existing human understanding. So how can you maintain that God never reveals the same thing twice?

What God reveals is and will always be perceived in its particularities, its 'singularity', and in discounting that, one glosses over those very things through which the full depth and meaning of the revelation is lost.

A Revelation by definition is that which is not the result of a natural historical process – it transcends the process. Revelation is always a rupture. It is couched in terms of the historical process, of course, it has to be, or it would be completely unintelligible to its witnesses, as is argued above. Were it the fruit of that historical process, it would not be revelation but realisation, which is entirely different and entirely within the scope of human intellectual activity.

I used the word 'singularity' above, and looking at a scientific definition:
"a point at which a function takes an infinite value, especially in space–time when matter is infinitely dense, such as at the centre of a black hole."
And I find that definition apposite – those elements particular to a given revelation are the points that 'take on an infinite value' – and by rendering all much of a likeness, that value is overlooked and that horizon remains veiled.

The 'rending of the veil of the temple' is a clear indicator that everything has changed, that the old tropes may be used, but they now convey entirely new and different meanings.

Nice use of the "singularity" analogy to emphasize the absolute uniqueness of each revelation. I like it.

"All that the sages and mystics have said or written have never exceeded, nor can they ever hope to exceed, the limitations to which man’s finite mind hath been strictly subjected… No tie of direct intercourse can ever bind Him to the things He hath created… He is and hath ever been veiled in the ancient eternity of His own exalted and indivisible Essence."
-Baha'u'llah

"All these attributes, names, praises and eulogies apply to the Places of Manifestation; and all that we imagine and suppose beside them is mere imagination, for we have no means of comprehending that which is invisible and inaccessible."
-Abdu'l-Baha

The "singularity" you refer to is not a singularity of essence (which remains unknowable) but a singularity of manifestation, a unique expression of the same divine attributes in a specific historical context. Just as different mirrors reflect the same sun in different ways, different revelations reflect the same divine reality in ways suited to their respective audiences. This does not diminish the value of any revelation; each is a perfect reflection within its own context.

+++

I would also voice a note of caution. The basic premise of the argument can be applied to the Baha'i Faith (indeed any faith) and thereby claim that the Bab, Baha'u'llah and so on are nothing more than derivative steps along an historical process, in a sense inevitable, and do not constitute anything new or insightful with regard to what has gone before.

While it's true that each Manifestation appears within a specific historical and cultural context, their appearance is not caused by that context. The Manifestations are divine interventions. They are not merely reacting to existing conditions; they are actively shaping and transforming those conditions through their teachings and influence.
 
@Thomas, please explicitly define what the unique meaning of the resurrection actually is. A lot of flowery language was used to stress the existence of this new meaning, but you haven't actually specified what that new meaning is. You say the "rending of the veil of the temple" signifies that "everything has changed," but how has it changed? What is the specific new understanding of God, humanity, or the relationship between them that is conveyed through the resurrection that wasn't present before?

Many ancient cultures had stories of resurrection or bodily ascension. If the uniqueness of Christ's resurrection is not in the form of the narrative itself (e.g., glorified body), then it must lie in its content—the specific theological or spiritual message it conveys.
 
"All praise and glory befit the sacred and glorious court of the sovereign Lord, Who from everlasting hath dwelt, and unto everlasting will continue to dwell within the mystery of His Own Inmost Reality… The sign of His matchless Revelation as created by Him and imprinted upon the realities of all beings, is none other but their powerlessness to know Him. And he hath not shed upon anything the splendour of His revelation, except through the inmost capacity of the thing itself. He Himself hath at all times been immeasurably exalted above any association with His creatures…"
-The Báb, Persian Bayan 1:1
 
"What is then the difference between him, and the ant, and the one above them? Both are created beings before God. It worshippeth God, its Lord; and he worshippeth God, his Lord. Likewise, it seeth the two antennae a mighty perfection for God and thus describeth God with them; and thou seest knowledge and power a mighty perfection for God and thus describest God with them. Then … understand that there is here no difference between thee and the ant. For indeed the praise of God by the ant through the two antennae is not worthy of God; and thy description through knowledge and power is also unbefitting of Him. For verily how can that which thou comprehendest be adequate before God when thou and whatsoever thou comprehendest are creatures before God, and God hath created them by His Will? God is pleased with the ant that it praiseth God, its Lord, with two antennae, inasmuch as the ant is unable to find a higher description to praise God, its Lord. Verily God accepteth the ant by His grace and mercy… Likewise thou seest knowledge and power as attributes of perfection and independence. Therefore, thou describest God, thy Lord, with them. Verily God, glorified be He, is pleased with thee and thy praise, notwithstanding His knowledge that none besides Him knoweth His Knowledge, and naught but Him encompasseth His Power. He is assuredly sanctified, magnified, glorified and exalted above all that hath been created and all that is to be created.”
-The Báb, Panj Sha’n

The Báb's teachings above emphasize that our understanding of God is always relative to our capacity and context. The ant analogy is particularly helpful here. The ant, with its limited sensory perception, might perceive God through its antennae. This perception is undoubtedly limited, but it's still a genuine interaction with reality. The ant is not wrong to perceive God in this way, given its limitations. Just as the ant's perception of God is limited by its sensory experience, human understanding is limited by our intellectual, cultural, and historical context. This means that no single human interpretation of revelation can claim to be the complete or final word on divine truth. Our understanding is always partial and subject to further refinement. Given the vast gulf between the Creator and the created, any communication from God to humanity requires a form of "condescension." The Manifestations of God are the primary means of this condescension.
 
As Baha'u'llah states...
I do not treat Baha'u'llah as an authority, nor agree with the view expressed.

This does not mean that revelation is reduced to mere human invention. Rather, it acknowledges the inherent limitations of human expression when attempting to convey divine truths.
What I am saying is there are those who seek to rationalise Scripture to the point at which they explain it all away. The 'empty tomb' can be seen as an example of this ... we just don't know, but you're expending a lot of energy trying to argue for a body 'left behind'.

I see it as a limitation that one cannot accept that:
a) the resurrection might well be physical to the degree that pneuma, in the Stoic sense, is through and through creation, and that to say something is a pneumatic body does not necessarily mean is possesses no physicality whatsoever – physicality is a mode by which pneuma organises its self-manifestation.

b) if God can cause miracles that seem to transcend the laws of nature, then disposing of a body would not be a problem.

Your assertion that God never reveals the same thing twice because it would be a "lesser good" raises a question about divine communication, doesn't it? How can God effectively convey new truths to humanity if every revelation is entirely novel and disconnected from existing understanding?
All language is metaphor, and the Holy Spirit reveals or 'inspires' – breathes into – the soul.

This creates a clear tension: How can something that "transcends the process" simultaneously be understood within that process? How can something utterly discontinuous be communicated through continuous, historical means like language and cultural concepts?
The tension is always there.

This argued a complete lack of precedent.
I don't think 'complete' was argued.

However, scholars like Litwa and Endsjø, and even Armstrong, have demonstrated the prevalence of similar resurrection concepts in that context.
Similar, but not the same. And clearly there were errors, such as the Docetists.

"'Jesus’ restoration to physical life…is the same preliminary to divine glorification or bodily deification that heroes like Asklepios, Herakles, and Romulus had received," which contradicts Wright's claim of uniqueness.
OK, I'm not wedded to Wright ...

This brings us to an inconsistency: If something is truly unique and without parallel, it cannot simultaneously have cultural resonance.
Yes it can, via language and via action.

These are mutually exclusive conditions. For a revelation to be understood, it must have some degree of connection to existing frameworks.
Which is as I have argued.

Yet, you seem to be arguing that the resurrection both relies on such parallels for intelligibility and fundamentally transcends them.
Yes.

This creates a paradox: It would be like saying, "This is completely unlike anything you've ever seen, but you need to understand it by comparing it to things you've already seen."
A mystery ... not a paradox.

Try saying: 'This is somewhat similar to what you know and understand, but not entirely the same as ... "

I think you're making this far more complex than it is.
 
I think you're making this far more complex than it is.

You're the one suggesting that the resurrection is both understood through existing concepts and constitutes a fundamental break from those concepts with a "rupture" of some sort that infuses existing forms with "entirely new and different meanings." This is the issue I'm trying to address.

You have not actually identified what the unique features of the resurrection are. Simply asserting that it's "different" isn't enough; you need to explain how it's different and what specific new meaning it conveys.

How is the resurrection different, and how significant is that difference? Is it a difference in degree or a difference in kind?

If we are to avoid "glossing over" the true meaning of the resurrection, we must clearly articulate its specific particularities and how they relate to existing cultural frameworks.
 
b) if God can cause miracles that seem to transcend the laws of nature, then disposing of a body would not be a problem.

When considered in isolation, it seems like an arbitrary act of power, rather than a meaningful communication of spiritual truth. The question isn't about God's power but about God's purpose. Why would God choose this specific act? How does the miraculous disposal of a body contribute to the central purpose of revelation: guiding humanity towards spiritual and moral development?
 
What I am saying is there are those who seek to rationalise Scripture to the point at which they explain it all away. The 'empty tomb' can be seen as an example of this ... we just don't know, but you're expending a lot of energy trying to argue for a body 'left behind'.

I see it as a limitation that one cannot accept that:
a) the resurrection might well be physical to the degree that pneuma, in the Stoic sense, is through and through creation, and that to say something is a pneumatic body does not necessarily mean is possesses no physicality whatsoever – physicality is a mode by which pneuma organises its self-manifestation.

The Baha'i Faith shifts the primary focus from a direct investigation of God's essence to an exploration of human nature, which was stated in the very first post in this thread. This approach is rooted in the belief that humanity is the most perfect reflection of God's attributes in the created world. Therefore, by understanding ourselves, we gain insights into the divine. Classical metaphysics often starts with a concept of "Being" or "God" as the ultimate reality and then tries to deduce the nature of the created world from this starting point. The Baha'i approach reverses this process, starting with an investigation of the created world, particularly human nature, as a means of understanding the divine.

The classical metaphysical approach tends to focus on the resurrection as an act of God's power, demonstrating His ability to transcend natural laws. The emphasis is on the how (the mechanics of the miracle) and the implications for God's nature (such as His omnipotence). This is reflected in your statements about God's ability to dispose of the body and the possibility of a "pneumatic body." The focus is on the event itself as a demonstration of divine power originating from God. Questions about the nature of the world and humanity are approached by deducing them from the nature of God.

The Baha'i approach shifts the focus from the how of the resurrection to the why. The emphasis is not on the mechanics of the miracle or the nature of the resurrected body, but on the spiritual meaning and transformative power of the event for humanity. The focus is on the purpose and meaning of revelation for humanity. Questions about God are approached by examining how His attributes are reflected in human experience and how revelation guides human development.

"While classical metaphysics begin with God to descend thereafter through the degrees of the hierarchy of Being, from the world of essences to that of individuals, the question which is found at the heart of the philosophy of Baha’u’llah is an inquest upon the nature of man. It is because one begins by defining the nature of man that one can thereafter ascend the degrees of the hierarchy of Being. This explains that the philosophy of Ideas or of Forms appropriate to Platonism or Aristotelianism is replaced by a philosophy of values. It is in the function of the meaning which is given to human life that one can define the finality of the physical reality of the universe."
-Jean-Marc Lepain
 
God's transcendent reality is not confined to human language (e.g., Aramaic, Greek, Arabic, Persian) or specific cultural worldviews. Scripture is not identical to God's speech, which is a transcendent reality beyond human language, but rather a human interpretation and expression of it.
😍😍🥰🤩

I wish this were universally understood
Or even more widely understood.
 
@Thomas, please explicitly define what the unique meaning of the resurrection actually is. A lot of flowery language was used to stress the existence of this new meaning, but you haven't actually specified what that new meaning is. You say the "rending of the veil of the temple" signifies that "everything has changed," but how has it changed? What is the specific new understanding of God, humanity, or the relationship between them that is conveyed through the resurrection that wasn't present before?

Many ancient cultures had stories of resurrection or bodily ascension. If the uniqueness of Christ's resurrection is not in the form of the narrative itself (e.g., glorified body), then it must lie in its content—the specific theological or spiritual message it conveys.
Well anything I offer, you'll counter ... and we both know that ... so I choose not to.
Does the existing Catholic Catechism define what the unique meaning of the resurrection is?
 
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