Quahom1 said:That means the earliest foundations of the church. That also means that Thomas is not historically inaccurate, by a long shot.
No, the Nicene Creed is from three hundred years after Jesus's death. Three hundred years. That's a long time, especially when we're talking about word of mouth. Have you ever played the game "telephone"?
Then it must be equally true that the Trinity is irrelevant. The words "trinity" and "hypostasis" appear nowhere in the NT. "Trinity" appears nowhere in the OT.Further more, the Nicene Creed though beautiful in thought and design, is not biblical in nature, therefore the "curse" is irrelavent. As is the curse in the Bible today as noted in Revelations by John (the other John). That curse was meant only for the book of Revelation, not the Bible as a whole.
Let me say it again: there is no doctrine of the trinity in either the OT or the NT. If you choose to interpret passages of either in terms of the Trinity, that's your business, but given that the Bible never uses the word Trinity, that interpretation is "speculation, not fact".The issue here is not whether a trinity was ever used before, during or after Christianity, but what the Christian Trinity is.
It isn't Father, Mother, Son (though I like the idea of the perfect family), it is Father, Son and Holy Spirit. These concepts are pre-Christian scripture, but still in the OT, and plain as day.
This is speculation, not fact, unless there is historical evidence to be provided to back this notion and counter that evidence which has already been presented for?...
Kinda like declaring that Constatine founded the Church...he didn't, but many think he did. History shows he probably saved the church that already existed, and had done so for 250 years before his birth.
Now, if anyone has evidence to the contrary, please present it. I would be most interested in this "evidence".
v/r
Q
On the contrary, I would like to see the evidence that any Christian before the fourth century talked about God as "one nature, three persons". Here are some suggestions where to start: in the first century, the books of the NT, the writings of Clement of Rome, the "apocryphal" books; in the second century, Ignatius, Irenaeus and Justin. In the third, Origen, Clement of Alexandria, Tertullian. Please show me where in their writings they use the formulation "one nature, three persons". If no one used this formulation for three hundred years after Jesus, how can you claim that it dates to "the earliest foundations of the church"?