Wavy_Wonder1
Above the average dabbler
Not worth it
Clearly this response does little to address my initial post.
Thanks,
Eric
<panto>*ooooh* yes it is!</panto>
well, hark at you. we're not a journal. that was how your argument came across to me, so i called it like i saw it. like dream says:
this is kind of what annoys me; the idea that nothing in judaism is at all original or in any way revolutionary. i believe the "asapatu" or whatever it was called in babylon was actually a day of ill-omen and nothing to do with a) the Creation or b) rest, joy and pleasure, to say nothing of stopping work. i'd give references, but i'm only a humble traditionalist on an interfaith dialogue site, not a top-notch academic writing a paper. no doubt you can quote chapter and verse to debunk my blind faith.
ok, so what you have established is that the words for "seven" are related, not that the origin of the *jewish* festival is the same as the origin of the babylonian one. if both had a seven-day cycle (which isn't beyond belief) it doesn't consequently mean that all seven-day festivals are related. you will no doubt be aware that there are animal sacrifices and a priesthood in judaism as well. it is well understood that the revolutionary nature of judaism was to take such established tools of religion and subvert them so that they conveyed an entirely new message and worldview. on reflection, i don't see any reason why the Torah shouldn't have decided to do the same thing for the week, but it still doesn't mean that this persisted later on or, if so, it was anything less than idolatrous.
if that is the case, why would we have broken this link between the weekly cycle and the lunar cycle? i mean, we still have a lunar calendar and new moon ceremonies and used to go to elaborate lengths to work out when the new moon was visible in jerusalem in order to send runners to babylon? we have, generally speaking, preserved our arguments and reasoning in the oral tradition. and how about the moon blessing ceremony? i've taken a look at the text and can't find anything to do with weeks or anything that could be construed as referring to the full moon, but i wasn't able to find anything. the central point, however, remains the same - on what basis can you assert that these two festivals are somehow the same? i mean, there are harvest festivals in every single culture, but nothing like Shabbat as it is outlined in the Torah - and it is Torah that is my reference point, not the pseudepigrapha, which are not part of the jewish canon. you could quote a Qur'anic text about what we were supposed to have got up to if you like, it wouldn't make it authoritative. nor is josephus, or philo, for that matter (don't actually have a copy of philo, only josephus, is he on the web somewhere?).
there were a lot of sects around at that time - by the same token, would you expect me to take christian texts as being evidence of what jews did or didn't believe? surely the qumran sect are proverbial for having been an odd bunch of people and not exactly mainstream.
the *hebrew* does nothing of the sort. it's merely a number of translations that disagree and i must take issue with them based on how this verse is traditionally interpreted. my copy of jastrow doesn't show "full moon" as a translation of the word "KeSeH", rather "designated", giving the translation as "blow the shofar on the new moon on the designated day of our festival", which makes more sense than to try and make out that it refers to the full moon at the same time as the new moon, when the two are 15 days apart. i would also argue that the context of the word in the verse refers to one day - rashi says rosh hashanah, in fact, which is why it talks about the shofar being blown. he supports this further with the reference to joseph later on in the psalm, joseph having been released on rosh hashanah (BT rosh hashanah 11a). rosh hashanah, of course, is always on rosh hodesh tishri, which would of course be the new moon, the word for "month" being the same as the word for "new" - i'm not actually sure what the full moon is called in biblical hebrew, but from rashi i'm pretty sure it isn't "keseh", despite what the normally reliable JPS seem to think. of course, first day rosh hashanah is sometimes on shabbat, so that might be what causes the confusion - the translation then exacerbates it by putting in a comma to resolve the consequent confusion by splitting the sentence into two halves, whereas there's no comma in the hebrew.
perhaps you should take some time to understand what Shabbat actually is before you take this kind of patronising, snooty tone.
b'shalom
bananabrain
Clearly this response does little to address my initial post.
Thanks,
Eric