Alikum salaam br,
You can not use "allusions" to support your point without
first providing a >foundation< for them in the Quran.
what do you mean by 'foundation' br; do you mean a verry clear reference to it?; in that case, where is your proof that there has to be a verry clear reference to any part of the Sunnah in the Quran if it is to be accepted?; I showed you mine where there dont need to be, nor does there need to be any reference at all, other than the indirect one of 59:7 [not sure if this includes essentials of faith too, or obligatory matters without there being some allusion at least to it]
So far you have said that hadiths cannot be trusted to be as authentic as the Quran, but I clearly showed how it infact can due to them being the record of the Sunnah, and due to the Sunnah being a neccessity to be incldued in Allah's promise of preservation of the 'Message', also due to the meticulous science of hadith/preservation methodology, and particularly the mutawaitr one's being beyond a shadow of dout due to the common sense and verry logical 'doubt proof' evidence of the mutawatir; the same evidence which the reliability of the authenticity of the Quran is based on; another thing to take into consideration is that both the Quran and hadith has been preserved by the same people, thus why can one be trusted and the other not?
Thats not to say that every hadith is the same level of authenticity as the Quran; however the sahih one's that do not reach the mutawatir level, are obligatory to believe and put into practice; Al-Qari relates, on this point, the consensus of the Companions and the Successors. rejecting them is a grave transgression (fisq) and is even considered misguided (dâll),
Basically what has been preserved of the Sunnah, be it via written documentations of hadiths, perpetual practice or by memmory [I suppose all those preserved in memmory and perpetual practice have probably? been preserved in writing by now, thus being available in hadith] is a sufficient amount to interpret the whole of the Quran acurately, for that is what has been preserved; the meaning of the Quran, thus allthough we may have some 'weak' catogary hadiths, yet that dont bear upon the meaning of the Quran in a negative way, for there are enough preserved for it not to be effected.
At this point brother, I'd like to ask you a simple question; how can you be sure that we can trust the Quran that it is the same Quran revealed to the Prophet [saw] and not a distorted one?
And because your foundation lies outside the Quran,
these "allusions" are not allusions at all, but become
>manipulations<
The foundation allways lies in the Quran br, for there is the verry clear references to the following/obedience of the Sunnah being obligatory for us, and there are the verry clear one's too that the Quran does not need to mention something clearly or at all in order for parts of Islam to be revealed to us via the Sunnah
The main part of you belief comes from the Hadith.
And you are using manipulated meanings of some verses
to support those hadiths. This is all that is happening here.
043.061
YUSUFALI: And (Jesus) shall be a Sign (for the coming of) the Hour (of Judgment): therefore have no doubt about the (Hour), but follow ye Me: this is a Straight Way.
PICKTHAL: And lo! verily there is knowledge of the Hour. So doubt ye not concerning it, but follow Me. This is the right path.
SHAKIR: And most surely it is a knowledge of the hour, therefore have no doubt about it and follow me: this is the right path.
43:61And he (=Isa) is a source of knowledge of the Hour (the Day of Judgment); so do not be in doubt about it, and follow me. This is the straight way.
in the above verse we can see that Allah is saying something [indicated by the word 'he' and in some translations 'it'; only pikthall says 'there']; is the [sign] of the hour
So how do we determine what that 'something', or who 'he' is?
lets take a look at the preceding verses:
043.057 - 60
YUSUFALI: When (Jesus) the son of Mary is held up as an example, behold, thy people raise a clamour thereat (in ridicule)! And they say, "Are our gods best, or he?" This they set forth to thee, only by way of disputation: yea, they are a contentious people. He was no more than a servant: We granted Our favour to him, and We made him an example to the Children of Israel. And if it were Our Will, We could make angels from amongst you, succeeding each other on the earth.
So the immediate context is talking about jesus br, and then Allah mentions 'something' or an 'he' being a sign of the hour; from the hadiths we know that indeed jesus [pbuh] is a sign of the hour, thus if we put two and two together, it becomes obvious that the reference is to jesus [pbuh]...
The immediate context after that verse is about jesus [pbuh] too:
043.063YUSUFALI: When Jesus came with Clear Signs, he said: "Now have I come to you with Wisdom, and in order to make clear to you some of the (points) on which ye dispute: therefore fear Allah and obey me.
So the whole context there is about Jesus [pbuh] thus this corrobarates further that the thing that will be a 'sign' of the hour, is 'Jesus'
Here is the tafsir regarding it:
And indeed he, that is, Jesus, is a portent of the Hour — [the arrival of] it is known by the sending down of him — so do not doubt it (tamtarunna: the indicative nūn has been omitted for apocopation together with the wāw of the [third] person [plural] on account of two unvowelled consonants coming together) but, say to them: ‘Follow me, in the affirmation of [God’s] Oneness. This, to which I command you, is a straight path’.
Altafsir.com – The Tafsirs - ÇáÊÝÇÓíÑ
(And he (`Isa) shall be a known sign for (the coming of) the Hour.) The correct view concerning this phrase is that it refers to his descent before the Day of Resurrection, as Allah says:
(And there is none of the People of the Scripture but must believe in him before his death) (4:159). -- meaning before the death of `Isa, peace be upon him -- .... Mujahid said:...
(And he shall be a sign for (the coming of) the Hour.) means, sign and "One of the signs of the Hour will be the appearance of `Isa son of Maryam before the Day of Resurrection. '' Something similar was also narrated from Abu Hurayrah, Ibn `Abbas, `Abu Al-`Aliyah, Abu Malik, `Ikrimah, Al-Hasan, Qatadah, Ad-Dahhak and others. Many Mutawatir Hadiths report that the Messenger of Allah said that `Isa will descend before the Day of Resurrection as a just ruler and fair judge.
Tafsir.com Tafsir Ibn Kathir
Now in verse 4:159, we can see the immediate context before it and after it is about Jesus [pbuh]:
004.157 - 159
YUSUFALI: That they said (in boast), "We killed Christ Jesus the son of Mary, the Messenger of Allah";- but they killed him not, nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but only conjecture to follow, for of a surety they killed him not:- Nay, Allah raised him up unto Himself; and Allah is Exalted in Power, Wise;- And there is none of the People of the Book but must believe in him before his death; and on the Day of Judgment he will be a witness against them;-
PICKTHAL: There is not one of the People of the Scripture but will believe in him before his death, and on the Day of Resurrection he will be a witness against them -
SHAKIR: And there is not one of the followers of the Book but most certainly believes in this before his death, and on the day of resurrection he (Isa) shall be a witness against them.
So this context sheds light on as to who'm is being talked about that the people of the scriputre will believe in before his death; note that all three translators there worded it the same as 'There is not one of the People of the Scripture but will believe in him before his death' [or basically rendering the same meaning], thus I think this is proof br, about the return of jesus [pbuh] for we know that all or most of the ahlul kithab do not beleive in him [as the Messenger of Allah, and rather they are abusing him by calling him God's son [astagfirullah] so we know in order for all [or most] of the ahlul kithab to believe in him before his death, he has to return...; we also know from the end of time signs that Islam will spread throughout the world with the second advent of Jesus [pbuh], thus this further corrabroates that the people of scripture will convert when they see him...
this verse also corraborates that Jesus [pbuh] did not indeed die, for we know his followers were verry few and the overwhelming vast majority of the ahlul kithab rejected him [as the messenger of God] before Jesus [pbuh] left the earth, thus does it make sense to think that Jesus [pbuh] died when Allah says that they will all believe in him before his deaths?...;
here is the tafsir to this verse:
And there is none of the People of the Scripture, but must believe in him, before his death.) before the death of `Isa, son of Maryam, peace be upon him. Al-`Awfi reported similar from Ibn `Abbas. Abu Malik commented;
(but must believe in him, before his death.) "This occurs after `Isa returns and before he dies, as then, all of the People of the Scriptures will believe in him.''
Tafsir.com Tafsir Ibn Kathir
And there is not one of the People of the Scripture but will assuredly believe in him, in Jesus, before his death, ...[it means] before the death of Jesus, after he descends at the approach of the Hour, as is stated in hadīth; and on the Day of Resurrection he, Jesus, will be a witness against them, of what they did when he was sent to them.
Altafsir.com - The Tafsirs - ÇáÊÝÇÓíÑ
So as we can see br, rather than 'manipulation' as you claim, they are sincere and proffesional exegesis by the experts of Islam; a basic glance at the context, rules out any 'manipulation' even for a laymen like me br