Neurotheology

In the spirit of comparative religion I would like to point out that mystical experience is just as common to polytheism as it is to monotheism. Though polytheism and monotheism are drastically different neurotheology and our common biological make up as humanbeings suggests that polytheistic mysticism and monotheistic mysticism are the same at a fundamental level.

With all due respect, I cannot help but feel Thomas' contributions are every bit as valid. In fact, considering the "post hoc, ergo proctor hoc" fallacy, I can't help but feel that it is really begging the question as to whether or not any genuine spirituality can be forced or induced. One step further, how can we be certain that the state induced is indeed spiritual?, and certainly of a kind and manner of spirit conducive to our well being.

As you point to, use of entheogenic agents is not unique to monotheism...in fact, as a general rule it is discouraged in monotheism in my experience. Seems I recall, and would need to follow up with a Strong's, but if memory serves me the term "sorceror" as used in the Old Testament Hebrew was specifically what we today would call a drug peddler or drug pusher. Yes, monotheism does use other methods as you point such as fasting and flagellation, but since this thread wishes to be limited to the use of psychotropic agents (and increasingly more limited to psilocybin mushrooms only) then by such limitation monotheism as a whole is excluded. Neither Judaism, nor Christianity, nor Islam, and as far as I know not Zoroastrianism, utilize entheogenic principles to induce mystical experience. Even Hinduism does not rely solely on entheogens, and what little I understand I doubt that would include psilocybin. The arguments trying to drag monotheism into this are a bit...unfounded in this regard.

Monotheism, when *not* incorporating such extreme practices to purposely invoke spiritual communion, seeks rather for the "top down" experience...in G-d's way and in G-d's time. It is those who perceive the Divine in a different manner, that humanly strive to provoke the spiritual communion, who enter that communion with the attitude of forcing G-d into their preferred schedule, on their time and terms. This "bottom up" way of approaching spiritual communion is quite contrary to Judaism and Christianity.

There seems to me a great deal of wisdom to the monotheist way of approaching the Divine. For one, to return to the "post hoc, ergo proctor hoc" fallacy...reducing the spiritual communion with the Divine to the action of chemicals in the brain is short sighted (no offense intended). Because an illusion or dream or supra-normal reality can be artifically caused does not necessarily mean that experience is "reality," let alone truth. LSD may well make one see purple unicorns...but it hardly means purple unicorns exist, other than perhaps in the mind of that person under the influence and nowhere else in reality or truth. Because one sees "god" under the influence, doesn't necessarily mean they have indeed experienced G-d.

The same chemicals that react on the brain to induce transcendental states approaching that of "experiencing G-d" are the exact same chemicals that act on the brain for the emotion of love. I've pointed to a number of studies to that regard in the past, and it so far has silenced the atheist critics who up to that point use the method of reduction to imply that love is "nothing more than" the act of chemicals in the brain. Here, we are faced with a very similar issue. If G-d is no more than chemicals on the brain, then we are left with the realization that He is nothing more than a hallucinogenic trip.

And if monotheism were of the habit of using hallucinogens to pursue that spiritual communion, a case could rightly be made...a case that *can* be made for those polytheist or whatever pill-popping psychotropic sorcerors, that G-d is in reality and truth an illusion. This is not so for Judism, Christianity and I would dare say Islam, precisely because G-d does not require drugs to interact with followers of these paths.

Sure, like you pointed to there are those on the periphery that do what they can to provoke or enhance that spiritual communion...fasting, flagellation, I'm sure there are a few others that escape me. But these are not the same as introducing a psychotropic substance into the brain to alter its perceptions. At least in the case of fasting, the idea is to *cleanse* the body of toxins, not introduce them, in order to make that spiritual connection.

But there is a distinct difference between going to G-d on His terms, and bringing god to the person on that person's terms.

I would be remiss if I did not add one important caveat...not all spirit has the interests of humanity at heart. If one goes looking, they will find...but what they find may not be what they want to believe it is. Whereas an agent of G-d coming to one on G-d's terms will make its presence known in no uncertain terms. I can't prove this outside of experience, but I know it as sure as I'm writing this.
 
With all due respect, I cannot help but feel Thomas' contributions are every bit as valid. In fact, considering the "post hoc, ergo proctor hoc" fallacy, I can't help but feel that it is really begging the question as to whether or not any genuine spirituality can be forced or induced. One step further, how can we be certain that the state induced is indeed spiritual?, and certainly of a kind and manner of spirit conducive to our well being.

As you point to, use of entheogenic agents is not unique to monotheism...in fact, as a general rule it is discouraged in monotheism in my experience. Seems I recall, and would need to follow up with a Strong's, but if memory serves me the term "sorceror" as used in the Old Testament Hebrew was specifically what we today would call a drug peddler or drug pusher. Yes, monotheism does use other methods as you point such as fasting and flagellation, but since this thread wishes to be limited to the use of psychotropic agents (and increasingly more limited to psilocybin mushrooms only) then by such limitation monotheism as a whole is excluded. Neither Judaism, nor Christianity, nor Islam, and as far as I know not Zoroastrianism, utilize entheogenic principles to induce mystical experience. Even Hinduism does not rely solely on entheogens, and what little I understand I doubt that would include psilocybin. The arguments trying to drag monotheism into this are a bit...unfounded in this regard.

Monotheism, when *not* incorporating such extreme practices to purposely invoke spiritual communion, seeks rather for the "top down" experience...in G-d's way and in G-d's time. It is those who perceive the Divine in a different manner, that humanly strive to provoke the spiritual communion, who enter that communion with the attitude of forcing G-d into their preferred schedule, on their time and terms. This "bottom up" way of approaching spiritual communion is quite contrary to Judaism and Christianity.

There seems to me a great deal of wisdom to the monotheist way of approaching the Divine. For one, to return to the "post hoc, ergo proctor hoc" fallacy...reducing the spiritual communion with the Divine to the action of chemicals in the brain is short sighted (no offense intended). Because an illusion or dream or supra-normal reality can be artifically caused does not necessarily mean that experience is "reality," let alone truth. LSD may well make one see purple unicorns...but it hardly means purple unicorns exist, other than perhaps in the mind of that person under the influence and nowhere else in reality or truth. Because one sees "god" under the influence, doesn't necessarily mean they have indeed experienced G-d.

The same chemicals that react on the brain to induce transcendental states approaching that of "experiencing G-d" are the exact same chemicals that act on the brain for the emotion of love. I've pointed to a number of studies to that regard in the past, and it so far has silenced the atheist critics who up to that point use the method of reduction to imply that love is "nothing more than" the act of chemicals in the brain. Here, we are faced with a very similar issue. If G-d is no more than chemicals on the brain, then we are left with the realization that He is nothing more than a hallucinogenic trip.

And if monotheism were of the habit of using hallucinogens to pursue that spiritual communion, a case could rightly be made...a case that *can* be made for those polytheist or whatever pill-popping psychotropic sorcerors, that G-d is in reality and truth an illusion. This is not so for Judism, Christianity and I would dare say Islam, precisely because G-d does not require drugs to interact with followers of these paths.

Sure, like you pointed to there are those on the periphery that do what they can to provoke or enhance that spiritual communion...fasting, flagellation, I'm sure there are a few others that escape me. But these are not the same as introducing a psychotropic substance into the brain to alter its perceptions. At least in the case of fasting, the idea is to *cleanse* the body of toxins, not introduce them, in order to make that spiritual connection.

But there is a distinct difference between going to G-d on His terms, and bringing god to the person on that person's terms.

I would be remiss if I did not add one important caveat...not all spirit has the interests of humanity at heart. If one goes looking, they will find...but what they find may not be what they want to believe it is. Whereas an agent of G-d coming to one on G-d's terms will make its presence known in no uncertain terms. I can't prove this outside of experience, but I know it as sure as I'm writing this.

Juan, where are your experts? You seem to be giving your opinion but this is worthless on this board. We need your experts.
 
Scientifically speaking the mystical state would be described as a particular set of neurological states. I believe in the Johns Hopkins study they made use of a rigorous questionnaire .
Hello TL,

What is the questionnaire's validity and reliability?

One of the things that research runs into is the tendency to rediscover the same/similar phenomenon and calling it something else. Recent research suggests that neurologically a Christian religious experience involves a state of enhanced empathy. Depending on how important a factor it is, we'd be better off studying social cognition than 'religious experience.'

At any rate, it was suggested that a Christian religious experience is not an emotional state. Rather, it's a cognitive state. Maybe empathy training that targets certain kinds of social cognitions will increase the chances of these supposedly desirable religious experiences.

Thought you might like this:
http://www.uni-graz.at/~schulter/biopers_ss05/se05_neuralcorr_relexp_azari01.pdf
 
Juan, where are your experts? You seem to be giving your opinion but this is worthless on this board. We need your experts.

Very well, but I am only repeating myself for the third time...

...more, that circumstantial evidence is sufficient to serve as "hard, evidenciary proof." Seratonin and other neurochemicals exist, therefore love exists. Correct?

OK, so…since seratonin (and other neurochemicals) are hard evidence that love, beauty, and other abstract notions exist, I would like to posit another abstract for consideration; G-d exists. Whether termed G-d, supernatural, paranormal, transcendental or simply religious experience; there are definitely registered and marked neurochemicals and receptors at play. Love exists because seratonin exists…therefore G-d exists because seratonin exists. See:

"This study demonstrated that a dozen different regions of the brain are activated during a mystical experience." - Université de Montréal - Press releases - Brain scan of nuns finds no single “god spot” in the brain, Université de Montréal study

"Professor John Bradshaw, an Australian neuropsychologist from Monash University, says the brain's medial temporal lobe is rich in *seratonin* receptors and has previously been described as the 'G-d spot' because it is active in transcendental states." -
Health & Medical News - Magic mushrooms hit the God spot - 12/07/2006

Please note, seratonin *specifically* implicated in "trancendental states."

"There is the quandary of whether the mind created G-d or G-d created the mind." -
New Page 2

"In their research, Beauregard and Paquette weren't trying to prove or disprove G-d's existence." -
Brain's 'God Spot' Hard to Pin Down

"Whether G-d exists or not is something that neuroscience cannot answer." -
BBC - Science & Nature - Horizon - God on the Brain

"Anybody who thinks you can't prove love or beauty has never heard of endorphins, serotonin,…et al" Hmmm, I've heard of love and beauty, and I've heard of seratonin (the chocolate drug) and endorphins (pain killers), and even a few more (like the opioids in the evolutionarily incorrect grain diet). I simply do not see the *absolute* direct cause and effect. Like I said before, after feeding more than a dozen nurses chocolate for over 5 years, one of them should love me *if* love were a simple chemical process. Don't get me wrong, they care for me, in a brotherly sort of way, and this has been made known to me on more than one occasion. But the implication that "love is a chemical process" is a bit too simplistic to account for the total reality. The error, in my humble opinion, lies in the extreme reduction(ism) of the whole abstract concept. Looking at the finger, not at the moon to which it is pointed. Same for beauty, and same for G-d.

So, in conclusion, I want to be certain I am seeing things correctly. Love and beauty exist because seratonin and other neurochemicals exist. Yet, whether G-d exists or not is something that neuroscience cannot answer…even though G-d evokes the exact same neurochemicals (within even more areas of the brain!) being held out as "proof" of love and beauty. Hmmm…sounds to me like a bit of a double standard. Either that, or somebody has selectively interpreted the "facts" in complete disregard for: "Skepticism (the fundaments of the scientific method) means NOT taking ANYTHING on faith."

Strong's 3784; kashaph, translated both as witch and in the AV as sorceror, but the definition isn't what I remember. Let me look a bit more...Ah!

Perhaps not an "authoritative source" in the strictest sense, but they have saved me a lot of formatting (I also stand corrected, it is the New Testament Greek, not the OT Hebrew):

"The acts of the sinful nature are obvious: sexual immorality, impurity and debauchery; idolatry and WITCHCRAFT; hatred, discord, jealousy, fits of rage, selfish ambition, dissensions, factions and envy; drunkenness, orgies, and the like. I warn you, as I did before, that those who live like this will not inherit the kingdom of God. --Gal 5:19-21 (NIV)

The Greek word here used for "witchcraft" is:

Strong's # 5331: pharmakeia (far-mak-i'-ah); from 5332; medication ("pharmacy"), i.e. (by extension) magic (literally or figuratively): KJV-- sorcery, witchcraft. (DIC)

Vine's Dictionary brings this into perspective with the following:

SORCERY:

"Pharmakeia" (Eng., pharmacy etc.) primarily signified the use of medicine, DRUGS, SPELLS; then, POISONING; then, SORCERY, Galatians 5:20, R.V., "sorcery" (A.V., "witchcraft"), mentioned as one of "the works of the flesh." See also Rev. 9:21; 18:23

In the Septuagint (the Greek translation of the Old Testament ca. 200 B.C.), Ex. 7:11,22; 8:7, 18; Isa. 47:9,12

"In sorcery, the use of DRUGS, whether simple or potent, was generally accompanied by INCANTATIONS and appeals to OCCULT powers, with the provision of various charms, amulets, etc., professedly designed to keep the applicant or patient from the attention and power of demons, but actually to impress the applicant with the mysterious resources and powers of the sorcerer."

http://home.netcom.com/~horse/sorcery.html

<edit: my bad, I neglected to cite my source>

And while I could refer to multiple excerpts from the Bible to draw out the fact that Judaism and Christianity tend towards distancing themselves from the practice of intentionally drugging themselves with the intent to pursue spirits, I think it would bog down the thread. I will point to one specific instance that leaps to mind, the story of Saul and the witch of Endor, in which the king was forbidden to pursue advice from the witch and did anyway and it cost his life. I am certain there are any number of lessons to be taken away from this lesson alone, and the conclusions will not be exactly the same between Judaism and Christianity, but the general point that pursuit of such is generally discouraged still stands.
 
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The reason I previously asked for a definition of "mystical" experiences is that many of them are not particularly out of the ordinary. The major difference is that there has been a shift in the person's usual way of processing their experience. This shift may be secondary to someone altering their sensory input as a result of taking certain chemicals. I other words, epiphenomena. Getting sick on too much nicotine or sugar could do it if it wasn't for the disruptive toxic effects.

Unlike Near Death Experiences, it appears that at least some kinds of religious experiences involve the person labeling them as being such. See the study I cited in my previous post.
 
Why would you take their word for it?

Because it is a consensus of experts in the field. Besides the general findings of the study jive with other studies I have read and my own personal experience.

Why are you so hostile?
 
I'm not hostile. Just making some observations.

I disagree. It seems obvious that you are reacting emotionally and not logically to this most recent subject.

But for the sake of others let's just agree to disagree.
 
I disagree. It seems obvious that you are reacting emotionally and not logically to this most recent subject.

But for the sake of others let's just agree to disagree.
No. There are too many unanswered questions for this to be considered totally scientific. First of all, there is the question of how you scientifically and objectively define the parameters of "a mystical state?" How can you be certain that your parameters fully encompass all of the qualities of "a mystical state" without leaving anything out? If you set some parameters, how many "mystics" will shake their heads and say, "You just don't get it?" Then there are the questions of "Is there a formula that can describe a mystical state?" Is there a specific quality that can be quantified and measured that is constant to all "mystical states?" What kind of individual variances are to be found within the parameters of a "mystical state," and can they be tracked, measured, and charted?
 
No. There are too many unanswered questions for this to be considered totally scientific. First of all, there is the question of how you scientifically and objectively define the parameters of "a mystical state?" How can you be certain that your parameters fully encompass all of the qualities of "a mystical state" without leaving anything out? If you set some parameters, how many "mystics" will shake their heads and say, "You just don't get it?" Then there are the questions of "Is there a formula that can describe a mystical state?" Is there a specific quality that can be quantified and measured that is constant to all "mystical states?" What kind of individual variances are to be found within the parameters of a "mystical state," and can they be tracked, measured, and charted?

Seattle Gal, You seem to be a very intelligent person so it is hard for me to believe that you do not understand the scientific process. This is a scientific study not a scientific law. Your questions are valid and while some have already been addressed others would be the subject of further scientific inquiry. However they do not significantly undermine the general findings of this study nor do they render it unscientific.

Again, I say that you are being uncharacteristically hostile towards this particular study. I can only imagine that it is because you do not like its results. Or perhaps you are just not comfortable with science in general and don't like to see it encroach into an area that you thought was "safe" from it. Whatever your reasons are you seem to be responding to it irrationally.
 
There's a basic problem of interjudge reliability which in this case would relate to how the researchers think about the experience. It's possible that no one could agree on what's involved in the experience or on the defining characteristics.

Someone might say that the experience is probably a delusion unless there is an activation of the divine mode by the Holy Spirit. (I believe bro Thomas has said as much.) Others would contend that that's not enough and would assert that we validate the experience based on how often the person has it: the person must have these experiences frequently and intensely in order for them to be a "real" mystical state. (see Fr. Jordan Aumann, Spiritual Theology).

A Zen Buddhist on the other hand would probably say there is no discontinuity of any kind between the so-called "mystical state" and normal waking consciousness. As indicated in Post 65, I'm more likely to go along with the Buddhist idea that satori is not an extraordinary state, but a reset to Original Mind, that is, the regaining the ability to see things as they really are.

Your questions are valid and while some have already been addressed others would be the subject of further scientific inquiry. However they do not significantly undermine the general findings of this study nor do they render it unscientific.
It seems SG is a skeptic, which is a highly desirable trait for doing science. But I think we should put together a consulting group and visit the research team over there at Johns Hopkins University and help get them get these various issues sorted out before they do another study. ;)
 
Seattle Gal, You seem to be a very intelligent person so it is hard for me to believe that you do not understand the scientific process. This is a scientific study not a scientific law. Your questions are valid and while some have already been addressed others would be the subject of further scientific inquiry. However they do not significantly undermine the general findings of this study nor do they render it unscientific.

Again, I say that you are being uncharacteristically hostile towards this particular study. I can only imagine that it is because you do not like its results. Or perhaps you are just not comfortable with science in general and don't like to see it encroach into an area that you thought was "safe" from it. Whatever your reasons are you seem to be responding to it irrationally.
TealLeaf, the first thing scientists worth their salt do is try to poke holes in a theory in order to refine it. That is not being hostile. Dismissing someone as irrational who is trying to help refine a theory by asking valid questions and/or presenting different evidence/interpretations of evidence actually brings the scientific method to a screeching stop.
 
TealLeaf, the first thing scientists worth their salt do is try to poke holes in a theory in order to refine it. That is not being hostile. Dismissing someone as irrational who is trying to help refine a theory by asking valid questions and/or presenting different evidence/interpretations of evidence actually brings the scientific method to a screeching stop.

The things that I would specifically call irrational on your part are; when you referred to my acceptance of the studies general findings as "faith" based and when you essentially referred to the study as unscientific or to use your colloquialism not "totally scientific".

Also I believe that in the past you have referred to and accepted the results of other studies without giving them so much scrutiny.

All of this leads me to believe that you might be merely reacting to the results of the study not truly considering its merits.

I suggest that perhaps the problem that you and others are having with this study is rather a problem with its premise that the mystical state is neuro-chemically based. This however turns out to be a problem with one of the basic premises of bio-psychology and perhaps all of modern psychology which is "The mind is what the brain does."

If one can induce a mystical state by fasting, physical exhaustion, sleep deprivation, physical pain (self flagellation) or other ascetic practices that are physical in nature it stands to reason that this mental state(s) can be achieved through chemical means as well. To elaborate, the ascetic physical processes alter body chemistry which in turn alters brain chemistry.

To help clarify the area of disagreement that we are having perhaps a few questions are in order.

Do you believe that ascetic practices can help to induce a mystical state?

Do you agree with the scientific premise that the mind is a function of the brain?

Do you believe that ascetic practices can alter body and brain chemistry?
 
The things that I would specifically call irrational on your part are; when you referred to my acceptance of the studies general findings as "faith" based and when you essentially referred to the study as unscientific or to use your colloquialism not "totally scientific".
Then what would you say you based your acceptance of the scientists review upon, other than faith?

Also I believe that in the past you have referred to and accepted the results of other studies without giving them so much scrutiny.
This is a case where my conclusions from my own empirical evidence (my direct experience with the use of psilocybin) does not jive with the conclusions reached by this study: i.e., the attainment of a so-called "mystical state."

All of this leads me to believe that you might be merely reacting to the results of the study not truly considering its merits.
The non-correlation of empirical evidence does tend to throw doubt upon such conclusions.

I suggest that perhaps the problem that you and others are having with this study is rather a problem with its premise that the mystical state is neuro-chemically based. This however turns out to be a problem with one of the basic premises of bio-psychology and perhaps all of modern psychology which is "The mind is what the brain does."

If one can induce a mystical state by fasting, physical exhaustion, sleep deprivation, physical pain (self flagellation) or other ascetic practices that are physical in nature it stands to reason that this mental state(s) can be achieved through chemical means as well. To elaborate, the ascetic physical processes alter body chemistry which in turn alters brain chemistry.

To help clarify the area of disagreement that we are having perhaps a few questions are in order.
Alright.

Do you believe that ascetic practices can help to induce a mystical state?
Induce, no. To help the ascetic recognize a mystical state, perhaps.

Do you agree with the scientific premise that the mind is a function of the brain?
Not necessarily. I see the brain more as a filter/sorter/interactive agent of mind, rather than a causal agent.

Do you believe that ascetic practices can alter body and brain chemistry?
Just breathing can alter body and brain chemistry. Anything you do can alter body and brain chemistry, including ascetic practices, so the answer to that question would be yes.
 
Do you agree with the scientific premise that the mind is a function of the brain?
Not necessarily. I see the brain more as a filter/sorter/interactive agent of mind, rather than a causal agent.
:eek: I forgot to include my reason/source:
The premise that mind is a function of the brain falls apart when you consider the well-documented placebo and nocebo effects, which are examples of cognitive processes influencing physiology.

If you want to explore the chemical reactions associated with expectation, you might like this study. However, it does not serve to make a positive scientific connection between expectation and the mystical experience. Furthermore, the idea of the expectation of having a mystical experience being the cause of having a mystical experience runs contrary to many religious traditions, such as Taoism, which says "But if desire within us be, its outer fringe is all we'll see." (Tao Te Ching 1)
 
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