bob x
Well-Known Member
You do not understand how the US worked then. In the South, blacks and whites lived intermingled, so school districts set up separate school systems; in Michigan, it was not allowed for school districts to separate the schools, so the way that whites prevented black children from attending the same schools as white children was by forbidding black families to live in the same neighborhoods. There were no black children in my elementary school, not a one; because there were no black families for miles around. In the 1960's "open occupancy" laws were passed, ending the legal restriction of blacks to particular neighborhoods, but in practice, blacks who moved into white neighborhoods were often burned out of their homes or otherwise intimidated. Judges ordered the schools mixed by "bussing" plans, which transported black children from black neighborhoods to formerly-all-white schools, and vice versa: the public opposition to this was intense and violent.Here is a map of the US prior to the Brown case and it already shows that the scene was not "very different" from what I described:
No, I will not excuse you. I would never have the freaking nerve to lecture a Pakistani about how things really are in Pakistan. It is very rude, and makes you look stupid.Excuse me if I don't take you as a credible witness of how things really were (all over your country).
And in Michigan, and in Indiana, just to name the states where I lived back then. The states you name may have been the only ones to put it in the law books that schools were required to open the day with prayers, but elsewhere in the country similar customs were taken for granted: before we ate, we had to chant, "God is great! God is good! Let us thank him for our food!" No, it doesn't rhyme, and always sounded stupid, but that's what everyone did until the courts said that wasn't allowed; and the change was not popular, though nowadays few would want to go back.Yea [the school-prayer ban] was "enormously unpopular"... in a very few states. Namely, Virginia, Arkansas, Alabama and Florida.
You were claiming that the courts rule out of fear of violence from mobs; it is not relevant to your claim which way the majority sentiment is, but which side commands the violent mobs. All the threats of violence come from, and always have come from, the anti-abortion side.In other words, you cant prove your case on abortion either.
First of all, they weren't "Nazi" courts, just "the courts" as they had existed in Germany from before. And secondly, I already pointed out that they did not survive: their functions were taken away from them, until they were not allowed by the Nazis to decide anything anymore, precisely because they were not "politically reliable".You are completely ignoring the point. Why did these Nazi courts survive if what the verdicts they were issuing went against German public opinion?
It is indeed a fact. And that is what makes it amazing that the judges had the courage to acquit all the defendants in the "show trials"; which is why the Nazis did not let the judges handle political cases, ever again, and eventually would not let them handle anything.It is a fact that by the time these show trials started the Nazi party was the only party which owned public adoration.
You do not understand the concept of "separation of powers". The courts are not the legislature. A judge cannot look a law and decide whether to uphold it or strike it down on the basis of "If I were writing the law, is this how I would decide?" If the majority has supported a law, it is uphold unless it can be struck down on the basis of "invidious discrimination": that is, the judge can only look at whether this is the sort of law which a majority does not have the authority to impose on the minority. The first question, as I explained before, is: does the law discriminate against an immutable characteristic, or against a voluntary action? The law discriminates against pot-smokers, a voluntary class, so one can avoid being discriminated against by: choosing not to smoke pot. Therefore, the judge only asks for the weakest kind of justification for the law: is there any "rational basis"? Any intoxicants can make people lazy or do damage: that is enough of an argument; of course there are arguments for allowing them (intoxicants give enjoyment) but it is not up to the judge to weigh which considerations are stronger or weaker (that is the legislature's job), just to see that there exists at least one rational consideration in favor of the law the majority chose.If it is so independent from public pressure, then explain why marijuana is illegal, but alcohol isn't? Just try and explain to me how that is not a case of public attitude influencing law, which (for whatever reason) decides that alcohol is fine, but pot isn't.
You are telling me "Israel discriminates against the Arabs in the occupied territories"? Yes, of course that's true; who could possibly say otherwise? Are you also saying that nothing should be done to change that?Yea, tell that to Israel. The fact is that whoever wins the war, owns the land.
Well, tell that to Palestine. They won't hear it from Americans; God knows we have tried to explain it to them over the years, but maybe if they started hearing it from other Muslims they might listen. If they accept that they lost the war, and that there is no purpose served by re-fighting and re-re-fighting the war they already lost, so that they lose again, and again and again: THEN it would become possible to give them some territory back and let them live in peace. The keys to their prison are in their own hands, and always have been.Natives have to accept that reality, just as the Palestinians have to accept theirs today.
I'll take your word for it. I don't know much about the Medinah period, as I have admitted; I was just back-projecting what the later Muslim rulers acted like on to the original situation, and that is unfair, then I stand corrected.Look, as far as medinah is concerned, just go and read up on whatever source you want. I have never encountered any credible academic claim of tyranny by the Prophet himself. The claims of Muslim tyranny begin once the Muslim rulers who came a century later started expanding
It goes from the decay of Israel, to the emergence of Muhammad, and then to Jesus, without indicating that there is a backtrack here (of course, we already know that Jesus has to be before Muhammad) or telling us where in the timeline Jesus fit. It was rude of me to call the Qur'an's order "random" (farhan's word "didactic" is better: what comes next depends upon what moral is being drawn from the story just told) but it is not "chronological"; and in particular there are never any time-spans given (quite unlike the Bible, which gives year-counts all the time).Do you have a point here? How does this support your argument that the Quran is "randomly jumbled" ??
The Quran picks up on Jesus (pbuh) story after the story of Israel is given, which is only logical.
The numbers you gave me did not direct me to the verses you were talking about; I really cannot figure out what system you are using.I have given you the numbers of The Quran. There is only one numbering scheme.
The Qur'an never SAYS that Solomon and David were "between" Moses and Jesus. It is only because we have the Bible that we have any idea about the ordering or the timeline; if all we had was the Qur'an it would be hard to tell who came before whom.The Quran mentions the histories of prophets that came between Moses and Jesus (pbut), like Solomon and David (pbut).
But the fact that Noah is mentioned first would not, if we did not have other sources, tell us that chronologically he came first; anymore than the mention of Muhammad before Jesus meant that Muhammad preceded Jesus.Do you agree that Noah (pbuh) preceeded all of them? Yes, fine.
Yes, the ORIGIN of 'Ad (and its capital of Iram) is thousands of years deep; but its DOWNFALL was between 100 and 200 CE: that is when the archaeologists find that Iram was buried by sandstorms. Hud is said to have been sent to 'Ad to warn them of their imminent downfall. This is the "didactic" order: the Qur'an talks about Noah, and that connects to 'Ad, because 'Ad was founded so long ago just a couple generations after Noah, and that connects to the fall of 'Ad, much more recently, and that connects to Thamud, because Salih reminded the people of Thamud to remember what had happened to 'Ad, and then it jumps back in time to Sodom, because that is another famous case of sudden destruction; this is not a chronological order. If other Muslim commentators before you have been misled into thinking that Hud and Salih must have been in between Noah and Lot, that is not actually the Qur'an's fault: it does not, in general, pretend to tell us who came before whom; it does say that the founding of 'Ad was a few generations after Noah, and of course the fall of 'Ad is after the founding, although the Qur'an does not clue us in that this is many thousands of years later, and then the story of Salih references the fall of 'Ad as an event which had already happened, but does not say how long previous.Next is mentioned Hud. Verse 65 says "To Ad we sent their brother Hud". He was a prophet, sent to the great grandchildren of Noah, in the city of Iram (Quran chapter 89: 6-13). Regarding this city:
The December 1978 edition of the National Geographic Magazine records that in 1973, the city of Ebla was excavated in Syria. The city was discovered to be 4,300 years old. Researchers found in the library of Ebla a record of all of the cities with which Ebla had done business. On the list was the specific name of the city of "Iram" (and not the name of the general region of Ubar). The people of Ebla had apparently done business with the people of "Iram".
Ptolemy lists all the peoples of the world, as best he knows, and where they live, as of the time that he is writing which is in the 1st century CE, and 'Ad and Thamud were still going then. Ptolemy never wrote any ancient history.After this, the next section mentions Thamud, and their prophet Salih (pbuh). Ptolemy has mentioned in his writings.
Thamud flourished from ~1000 BCE to ~500 CE overlapping with 'Ad, starting well over a thousand years later than the start of 'Ad and ending a few centuries later than the end of 'Ad.This tribe flourished two+ centuries after Ad.
Commentators have said that; the Qur'an does not.Then Lot (pbuh) is mentioned, then Shuaib (pbuh) who is mentioned as being sent to Midian. He was a decendent of Abraham (pbuh) in the fifth generation, according to my footnotes.
As I said, there were still Midianites in the 1st century CE; "Midianites" were "destroyed" many many times, since the word was a generic term.Ptolemy has mentioned Midian by the name of Modiana on the Red Sea
Not paying any attention to what I said, eh? Quite the contrary, I said FORGET "silas" and rely on Imam Muslim, Siddiqi, Budzaiwi, Husain, and the Qur'an itself. Do all those sources become bad because "silas" correctly recapitulated what they say? Can you answer any of the points I said were "clear" from those sources?Still relying on "Silas" eh?
If you agree that it is unreasonable to expect someone to read every Jewish text, then the burden of proof is on your side: show me one example of the claimed usage. It is not reasonable to say, "However many texts you have looked at and not found one, maybe maybe maybe there is an example of such a usage hidden somewhere you haven't checked yet." Nor is it reasonable to demand that I find some source who will claim the "universal negative"; such a source would have to have read everything before he makes such a claim. Find me an academic source that says "Sister" has never been used to mean "hermaphroditic clone"; I bet you can't! That is why I originally said I didn't believe that any book would "talk about what never happens"; because I didn't think anyone would claim to have read everything.Yea, I am sure "silas" has
Now look: in the Bible, unlike in the Qur'an, it is perfectly clear that David was in between Moses and Jesus; Jesus is called the "son of David". If you demand of me, "Show that there was any such usage of 'son' to mean a distant descendant," I can easily answer, "Yes, yes, of course: here are examples of such usages by the bushel-load." Why can't Muslims come up with even ONE example of the usage they claim, after this question has been asked for fourteen centuries?