You should avoid using this, it is kind of like saying "God told me and only me, listen to me I know the truth".
I gave you my analysis of the facts. The bigger linguistic picture aside, the closest thing to monotheism before Zarathushtra are the Acheamenid inscriptions. The Greco-Romans make several references to at least he Behistun. The Platonic school c400 BCE at least acknowledge Zarathushtra, the father of the Magians, and the son of Ahuramazda, and that THE PERSIANS WERE FOLLOWERS OF ZOROASTER, though their interpretation of the religion is garbled. They speak of "gods," but there's consistent references to Ahuramazda in the Old Persian inscriptions as the highest of the "gods," and only mention of Ahuramazda until later. And it's obvious that the Zarathushtrian compositions or scriptures preceded the Old Persian inscriptions. First there are Zoroastrian forms in Old Persian like Ahuramazda < Mazda Ahura, and secondly there is no mention of either Persian or the Medes in the Zarathushrian scriptures which also supports that they were attested before the Persians and Medes had come to power. When does anyone other than the Jews themselves make reference to Jewish anomalies other than 1. David 2. Ahab 3. Yahweh 4. Israel before Josephus? And actually describe who Yahweh was?
Quite a bizarre suggestion.
So if Josephus claimed himself to be a Jew, and wrote about the Jews, then you are saying that Josephus was the founder of Judaism?
I'm saying for all we know he could have been because we don't have any other references to any of the phenomenon mentioned in the Hebrew Bible (aside from the aforesaid names a brief details) until Josephus.
More seriously, have a look at Redaction Theory (Redaction Theory (Documents Hypothesis): Torah Torah Torah : Interfaith) which makes quite a serious suggestion at how the OT texts developed over centuries.
Basing the age of a faith on linguistic evidence of a translation is an obvious fallacy.
I've corresponded with Bob X. He's a great linguist. But he has put way too much weight on the archaisms in language as a means to attribute an early date to language. For example he states:
"More objectively, P is distinguished from J and E by serious changes in the language: where J and E differ linguistically in a way typical of regional dialectal differences, P reflects centuries of subsequent change."
For all we know those were different dialects of Hebrew being spoken all at the same time.
He also states however:
"The Chaldeans introduced the seven-day week: prior to that time, a week was a quarter-phase of the moon, usually seven days but sometimes eight as required."
I think this is an interesting point, but the calendrical system alluded to in Genesis points to a post-Acheamenid period. The calendrical system in Genesis was based developed by the Chaldaeans and so were the Calendars used by the Acheamenids. What is also interesting is that if you are going to use calendrical systems as a means to date a composition, well, the Zarathushtrian scriptures also allude to a calendrical system, but it was based on the quarter-phase week. That points to a pre-Acheamenid date. If the calendar in Zarathushtrian scriptures was post-Acheamenid it would have resembled the calendars that were in use among the Acheamenids.
Originally Posted by radarmark
It is a Greek source (the Septuagint). You are the one making thius outrageous claim, what is your source?
Outrageous? Show me one reference to the Septuagint in Greek or Roman before Josephus. Like I said I can only find a few names and scanty details of the Jews before Josephus.
I did, please note the references to nine pre 50 BCE fragments, the Rohlfs fragments 801, 802, 803, 805, 819, 848, 942, 943, and 957. Three are 2nd century BCE. That predates Josephus by 250 years or so.
Are you talking about the Dead Sea Scrolls? Those aren't references to the Septuagint. Those are fragments of the Hebrew Bible themselves.
Originally Posted by radarmark
It is called science, radio-carbon dating or other archeological in-situ dating. If the papyrus and parchment and ink date from 100 years before Josephus (as they do in the case of the Qumran scrolls), that pretty much lets you know they weren't werittewn after that.
They can't carbon-date ink. Where did you read about the dating the ink of the Qumran scrolls?
Try “AMS radiocarbon dating of ancient Japanese documents of known age” in Journal of Radioanalytical and Nuclear Chemistry 255;2;375-379 (really, really concise reference). Radiocarbon dating is done with carbon… the black stuff in most ink (whether soot or octopus ink). For Biblical refs, try the beginner’s text “Bible and Radiocarbondating” (Levy and Higham; 2005). As for radio-carbon dating of ink in Qumran, try “The Dead Sea Scrolls, the science and new technologies” in Dead Sea Scrolls 11;2; 133-42 or “The Effects of Possible Contamination on the Radiocarbon Dating of the Dead Sea Scrolls” (pt 1 Radiocardon 43(1)127-32 and Pt 2 Radiocarbon 51(3)1005-22—warning these are hard texts) or any of their 60 or so references.
Thanks. I wasn't aware that it was possible to radio-carbon date ink. It was my understanding that there is no chemical process to date a text. It's the first time I've heard of anything like it. But the link concerning the radio carbon dating of ink "THE DEAD SEA SCROLLS SCIENCE AND NEW TECHNOLOGIES," from what it only allows me to see places the scrolls much later than 300BCE earliest or 167BCE and 233CE latest. The late date is over 100 years after Josephus.
Originally Posted by radarmark
Still awaiting for you to come up with a pre 1000 C.E. copy of the Gatha.
The Gathas were passed down in the oral tradition like a human tape recorder. Your not going to be able to prove that any text was recorded before 1000 C.E. through chemical means.
Fine, why not extend the same courtesy to the Old Testament? If the Gathas (in some form) were really set down pre-1000 BCE by followers of Zarathustra, why is it not possible the sons of Abraham set down their texts in same period. Notice I do believe both were extensively re-written. What is good for the goose is good for the gander. If one logically can make the claim you assert (Gathas passed down) then it must be logically true that the same can be said for the Old Testament.
No the same can't be said of the Old Testament. We only know of 4 references (above) to Old Testament material before Josephus. And nothing to show a monotheistic belief system. The rest of the details might have well been made up during or after Josephus. UNLESS we take the earlier date for radio carbon dating of the Dead Sea Scrolls into account.
Originally Posted by radarmark
Per your preevious point, if the dating cannot be made, what makes you state that Abraham was not mentioned before Josephus?
Because he's not and nor is the Septuagint. Albeit the language of the Septuagint may show an archaic form of Koine, but Koine was used up until 300AD.
See my first point—there are nine clear examples of pre-50 BCE Septuagint.
What the Dead Sea scrolls which may have been attested as late as 233CE or the Septuagint itself that no one makes reference to until Josephus 75CE?
Originally Posted by radarmark
If your grandeous "Aryan Bible" theory is really only founded upon a few faint scribbings of some ancient empire that has returned to the sands, or the writings of the Greeks (who never ever, as I have pointed out, and you have yet to refute, considered Zarathustra any kind of monotheist) and my "Old Testament" theoiry upon the vast corpus of the Qumran find, which should I choose? Why not both?
No, but they mentioned Zarathushtra and show that the Persians were followers of Zarathushtra. Plutarch 100-200 mentions both Ahuramazda and his rival Ahriman. Still a bit garbled, but you're not going to understand how the religion of Zarathushtra was monotheistic unless you read it in it's pure or native form.
Nonsense, the classic Greek references (including Plutarch) clearly state that the religion of Zarathustra was polytheistic, not even monodolatric. In “their pure form” (if you accept that, I do not, the text itself, like the OT, indicates layer upon layer of rework) the text can only be dated to sometime after 1000 CE. That is a long, long, long time later.
Saying that “you’re not going to understand Zarathustra was monotheistic unless you read it in it’s pure form” is like saying “you cannot understand gravity until you master Einsteinian relativity”. Balderdash. Then the Salafists are right saying you can only comprehend the Quran in the original or Kach are right saying you cannot understand the OT unless you read Hebrew.
For example, I read Russian (a cold war leftover) and can pretty much tell you that the “Gulag Archipelago” in English is quite true to the original, ditto for the latest translation of “Joseph and His Brothers”. Some word-play and mythic elements may be missing, but they are missing from it when I read the original because I am me and not a German reader from the WWII era.
What I'm saying is that the Avesta shows clear signs of monotheism. The Greeks do make the Zarathushtrian religion out to be polytheistic. But that is clearly not the case. The Acheamenid inscriptions alone make a way better case for monotheism than every version of the Hebrew Bible. It's not until the Jews begin mentioning the Persians that their mythology does start appearing monotheistic.
And speaking of pure forms: It's hard to find loans in the Gathas, not to mention the Gathas don't mention either the Persians or the Medes, nor do they mention the Jews. Whereas the Hebrew Bible shows Zoroastrian influence.
So? The point I am making is not that there is not a Babylonian influence on the OT (I can read it for myself). The point is that it is not half-bad history (read the entire corpus of Finkelstein and the Iron Age excavations in Israel), which indicates that a pre-50 BCE dating (the minimum given per the science of the Septuagint fragments) is highly likely. You need not believe it, but do not think your belief has anything to do with reality.
And my point is that I think it's a joke that you're even calling it a history. The way I see it Judeo-Christians, and scholars have used 5 historical references (1. the name David and nothing more 2. Ahab and a battle waged, nothing more 3. the name Yahweh, and nothing more 4. the name Isreal, and battle waged) to prop up a mythology and coheres people into thinking there is some authenticity to it. It's so delusional.
The point is, be fair in your analysis (this is what science and all beneficial communications should be all about). If you claim that the "Aryan Bible" was completely as it exists today when the petrographies were incused, that is fine with me. The hard right of the Kach then is equally correct in stating that the inerrant word of Gyd (in Hebrew) was existant by 1200 BCE. You cannot claim one without allowing the other.
I am being fair. I'm using the historical method for both the Aryan Bible and the Hebrew Bible. And no one is stopping you from making your points either.
Seems we have our answer.
What was the question, you ask?
"I am horribly afraid what mojobadshah posted is (1) just very poor research or (2) another anti-Semitic rant.".
I don't appreciate that comment. I'm not anti-Semitic. I'm just not a kiss-ass. As a matter of fact I battle anti-Semitism indirectly everytime I try to get it through to the people in this part of the world that the Irano-Afghans are the "most just" Aryans, not for example, the KKK or Aryan Nation, or any other neo-nazi and fascist organization and hate group.
And did not even bring the Nash Papyrus into play. It is a fragment with the ten commandments and the beginning of the Shema prayer dated (with very high confidence because it has been studied for over 100 years) to 200 BCE.
I told you that a fragment in itself is not secondary source. That could have been written anytime or did they use radio-carbon dating here too. And lastly its just a fragment. That's hardly proof that everything in the Hebrew Bible had been composed when it was composed.
So add it to the 9 pre-Josephus Septuagint fragments and the about 200 pre-Josephus Qumran biblical fragments and you get 210 verifiable data points that refute mojobadshah's thesis. Since each of these items is reference in Google Scholar about 2,000 times, let us safely say there are 250,000 references (academic or published, using far less than the 2,000 hits-per-item).
I don't understand how you're dating these fragments? Radio carbon dating ink I can believe, but is that what they did? That's nice that they were written, but nobody ever mentions them. They could have been written at anytime.
THere we have it. There are 210 actual instances of written OT scriptures which pre-date Josephus and 250,000 references to that fact. MBS can believe as he will, but the fact is he is just incorrect, scientifically.
Lacking a response acknowledging his sub-par research on the topic one can infer that case (2) above is applicable.
WHAT 250,000 REFERENCES? Like in Greco-Roman literature? After Josephus? What are you talking about? Judeo-Christianity didn't even thrive in the west until 300CE when Constantine made the religion official.
Howcome I've never hear about how they've been radio-carbon dated then? All I ever see is that they've been dated through extralinguistic or paleolinguistic methods. That is the standard. The earliest New Testament dates back to 250CE. The earliest reference to the New Testament is 1st or 2nd Clement. These are sources that can be corroborated. No one ever speaks of the Jews as completely as Josephus does until Josephus.