E
exile
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Did Greek rationalism lead to democracy or was it democracy that brought about the conditions ripe for rationalism?
Democracy does not imply rationalism nor rationalism, democracy. However, if one accepts the limited notion of democracy of (say) Athens as democracy and the limited notion of rationalism (using reason to figure things out--except for the democracy convicting Socrates) as rationalism. I do not know, but...
In terms of the enlightenment (separating philosophy and science from theology) versus liberty (the possession of rights), the evidence is pretty clear that enlightenment came first. It was required for the notion of "rights" that were not the whim of G-d or man (there is a lot of classic liberal theory on this).
So by analogy, rationalism (thinking abstractly) was needed (perhaps) to construct the notion of rule of the privileged men (and not just one man).
I admire your thinking here. I would merely add two things:
"Theology", "rationality" and "democracy" as the Classic Greeks used the terms are not the same as our more complex and refined terms of the same names.
Theology (study of a god) really is rather limiting, we could call studying G-d within the context of everything psukhology (should have been psychology but Freud got there first)... the classic metaphysical sense of theology.
Rationality was rather idealistic (in the metaphysical not emotional sense). It implies that a prior thought and Platonic forms determine material reality. Empiricism fought this beast, but too soon devolved into mindless materialism. That is why something like Leclerc's or Pierce's or Whitehead's approach of a rationality fed by empiricism which is neither idealistic nor materialistic seems (IMHO) a superior point-of-view.
Finally, democracy is of value, but unless coupled to a "rule of law" or "rights of the individual" or "republicanism", it can become a suicide pact (Afghanistan may be, Israel could be, and the new Egypt may be). It is insidious, and JMHO, the basis for the Tea party phenomenon in the US.
A majority of voters in (gerry-mandered majority white and Republican) state districts elect a majority in the statehouses who gerry-mander the districts further so that their constituents (a majority in each district, but a minority overall) elect a House that is determined to oppose the will of the people.
No, "psyche" meant soul. So psychology should (by ancient Greek terms) the study of the soul and spirituality.
Who do you rationally think is responsible for your choice of action? Before God, a higher power, or another, who do you rationally think represents you?Did Greek rationalism lead to democracy or was it democracy that brought about the conditions ripe for rationalism?
It was, in the beginning. But the mindless mind of Freud and behavioralism (if I remember right) pretty much changed that. It may change back given the impact of the integral school...
The early Fathers of psychology Wundt, Ebbinghaus, Pavlov (before Freud) really focused on mental functions and behavior. Then Freud "fixed" all of that as applying to mental states (ego, id, super-ego and all that jazz) that "really exist as material things".
I think only James and Jung focused on "souls" as we incorporeally mean it. Then the behavioralists really screwed it up (IMHO).
Since WWII there have been two trends (again, speaking from memory), humanistic (Maslow to Wilber) and the reductionist (cognitive) schools. In terms of meta-issues I think Ryle, Searle, Penrose, and Chamlers have gone a long way in providing evidence against the cognitivists.... but the Churchlands and Dennett have taken cognitivism under its wing. And these three are die-hard physicalists who deny the very existence of mind, let alone soul.