Common Figure of Speech/Colloquial Language?

Maybe a different formatting of the OP may make it a bit more clear:

1. The Messiah said that He would be three days and three nights in the "heart of the earth"

2. There are those who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week.

3. Of those, there are some who think that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb.

4. A 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection allows for only 2 nights to be involved.

5. To account for the lack of a 3rd night, some of those mentioned above say that the Messiah was employing common figure of speech/colloquial language.

6. I wonder if anyone who falls in that group of believers could provide examples to support that belief; i.e., instances where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred?
 
No new wtiting. But (having read through the thread) a thought: Jesus was to Moses as was Einstein to Newton. Yes, Jesus was a Jew, but he took Judaism into new truth that did not invalidate the old, but which expanded it. Hence: "Think not that I have come to destroy the Law, but to fulfill it." ?
 
RJM Corbet,
re: "No new wtiting."

OK, thanks for letting me know. But maybe some one else will know of examples.
 
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The 'problem' is solved if you follow the Johannine narrative...
 
Thomas,
re: "The 'problem' is solved if you follow the Johannine narrative… "

How so?
 
I think this has been discussed before ...

The Passover is determined by the lunar calendar, not by the day of the week. So, if Nisan 14 falls on a Tuesday/Wednesday (as it did in AD30), then the body is placed in the tomb on a Thursday, Friday and Saturday, rises on Sunday.
 
Thomas,
re: "The Passover is determined by the lunar calendar, not by the day of the week. So, if Nisan 14 falls on a Tuesday/Wednesday (as it did in AD30), then the body is placed in the tomb on a Thursday, Friday and Saturday, rises on Sunday."

That's an issue for a different topic. But maybe someone new looking in may know of examples.
 
Thomas,
re: "http://turretinfan.blogspot.com/2017/04/three-days-and-three-nights-hebrew.html"

I don't see where the link shows examples where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred.



re: "Another useful reference is Esther 4:16/Esther 5:1."

Nothing in the Esther account precludes at least a portion of each one of 3 daytimes and at least a portion of each one of 3 night times.



re: "What comes out is 'three days and three nights' can be used to signify a continuous period of time, not necessarily 72 hours."

That's an issue for a different topic.



re: "Forty days and nights is another, longer period."

That's an issue for a different topic.
 
I am confused as to where you've gone with this topic, then.

In your initial post, the question was:
I wonder if anyone knows of any writing from the first century or before that shows a phrase stating a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights when it absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights?
My point is it seems you're looking for 'specifics' in a language that is non-specific in the context you seek?
 
Thomas,
re: "I am confused as to where you've gone with this topic, then. In your initial post, the question was: 'I wonder if anyone knows of any writing from the first century or before that shows a phrase stating a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights when it absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights?'"


The OP was poorly worded. However, it has been clarified in subsequent posts - most recently in post #122.
 
4. A 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection allows for only 2 nights to be involved.
Technically right, but linguistically wrong.

To account for the lack of a 3rd night, some of those mentioned above say that the Messiah was employing common figure of speech/colloquial language.
OK.

6. I wonder if anyone who falls in that group of believers could provide examples to support that belief; i.e., instances where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred?
Don't think that group of believers has a presence here on IO.

You're rather assuming 'they' are in error, and then asking them to justify it.

As I've made clear, I think the question is flawed in its presumptions.
 
Thomas,
re: "Don't think that group of believers has a presence here on IO."

Are you telling me that I shouldn't think that that particular group of believers has a presence here, or are you saying that you don't think that particular group of believers has a presence here?

If the latter, then that has so far seemed to be the case .
 
Thomas,
re: "Don't think that group of believers has a presence here on IO."

Are you telling me that I shouldn't think that that particular group of believers has a presence here, or are you saying that you don't think that particular group of believers has a presence here?

If the latter, then that has so far seemed to be the case .
Of all the many inconsistencies of precise scriptural accuracy, why does this particular one drive you to continue years keep asking?

If Monday was actually Tuesday or Saturday 2000 years ago? Considering the moveable Passover Sabbath. Does it therefore invalidate the whole New Testament?

In fact I find the inconsistencies to be a valid argument towards the general historical veracity of transmission; it would have been easy enough for some central authority to iron out the difficulties, if it was going to be all cooked-up by such an authority?
 
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RJM Corbet,
re: "Of all the many inconsistencies of precise scriptural verbal accuracy..."

That would be an issue for a different topic.



re: "...why does this particular one drive you to continue years keep asking?"

Simple curiosity.



re: "If Monday was actually Tuesday or Saturday 2000 years ago?"

I don't understand your question. It looks like an incomplete sentence.



re: "Considering the moveable Passover Sabbath."

Again, that looks like an incomplete sentence.



re: "Does it therefore invalidate the whole New Testament?"

That would be a question for a different topic.
 
Of all the many inconsistencies of precise scriptural accuracy, why does this particular one drive you to continue years keep asking?
Seems it's not really about the Three Days as such in Scripture, but about narrative style? Not sure why it's on the Christian board.
 
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Thomas,
re: "Seems it's not really about the Three Days as such in Scripture, but about narrative style?"

What do you mean by "narrative style" as it applies to this topic?
 
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