My point is it seems you're looking for 'specifics' in a language that is non-specific in the context you seek?I wonder if anyone knows of any writing from the first century or before that shows a phrase stating a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights when it absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights?
Technically right, but linguistically wrong.4. A 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection allows for only 2 nights to be involved.
OK.To account for the lack of a 3rd night, some of those mentioned above say that the Messiah was employing common figure of speech/colloquial language.
Don't think that group of believers has a presence here on IO.6. I wonder if anyone who falls in that group of believers could provide examples to support that belief; i.e., instances where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred?
Of all the many inconsistencies of precise scriptural accuracy, why does this particular one drive you to continue years keep asking?Thomas,
re: "Don't think that group of believers has a presence here on IO."
Are you telling me that I shouldn't think that that particular group of believers has a presence here, or are you saying that you don't think that particular group of believers has a presence here?
If the latter, then that has so far seemed to be the case .
That's the way it seems to me.If the latter, then that has so far seemed to be the case.
Seems it's not really about the Three Days as such in Scripture, but about narrative style? Not sure why it's on the Christian board.Of all the many inconsistencies of precise scriptural accuracy, why does this particular one drive you to continue years keep asking?