Hi Marcialou. There are other Christian interpretations of Matthew that I have found on the internet.
Actually, I think Matthew meant what he meant. It's crystal clear.
Except that Matthew is not quoting Jesus . . . Matthew is quoting Matthew.
A little theological history, here:
Under the old patriarchal Jewish Monotheism of Leviticus . . .
If you don't do the deed, you haven't committed the sin.
We are talking social (i.e. material) facts, here. Not psychological (i.e. immaterial) figments.
Jesus is severely against the Pharisaic practice of inventing New Laws to follow.
To him, the old ones are good enough. Particularly two (Holiness and Mercy, i.e. "to love God" & "to love one's neighbor").
Matthew (like Jesus) likewise opposes these Pharisaic "cleanliness" Laws. But Matthew, with his additions to the Sermon on the Mount, is implicitly doing the same thing as the Pharisees - adding New Laws. Psychological ones.
So I am dubious about the pertinence of Matthew's psychologizing of ancient Scriptural mandates.
It does not mesh well with the general thrust of Jesus' ministry.
Part and parcel with the morality of Christianity (or of any religion) is:
1. temptation to do ill . . .
but . . .
2. resisting this temptation.
"Get behind me, Satan." Jesus . . . was in the wilderness 40 days and was tempted . . .
--Mark 1:12-13.
Jesus is thrice-tempted in the desert by Satan - according to Matthew 4:1-11 and Luke 4:1-13 (same anecdote, probably from the Q-document, thus pretty likely from Jesus own lips): Temptation 1: Turn stone into bread.
Temptation 2: Authority over all the kingdoms of the world.
Temptation 3: (weightlessness - walk on air - ) Angels hold him aloft.
But here it becomes pretty obvious:
By Matthew's own (e.g. Sermon on the Mount) psychological accounting, Jesus 3-times in the desert "sinned in his heart." (Been "tempted.")
The point being:
Not that Jesus has never had "bad thoughts."
Rather, that Jesus resisted the temptation to act upon them.
This is Old School religious morality. This is Leviticus.
Jesus (in my view) never talks about "sinning in one's heart."
That's Matthew. Him alone.
Not Mark or Luke.
Not John or Paul. (Not George or Ringo.)
Matthew alone, in the First Century.
(However there are many Christian theologians and mystics long after him - like Augustine and Eckhart - who would take Matthew's cue and "go psychological.")
Can the "risqué" be accurately described as . . . an act of "sinning" (in one's heart)?
Matthew . . . "Yes."
Jesus . . . "No."
Marcialou (& Namaste Jesus), that's my reading of this matter.
Jane.
Hi Jan. Gee, I just replied to Marcia. So I guess the my next reply will be to Cindy?
Anyway. Among other things, I walked away from your argument above, understanding that you believe and embrace some parts of the bible, and reject, even loathe other parts.
Pretty powerful stuff. But let me say this in response to your charge that Jesus actually wouldn't have any problem with a man looking at a married woman in an overt, sexual, lustful way. You contradicted yourself. First, you argued that Jesus was content with the existing Old Testament Laws. But then, in your argument I just laid out, you claim that Jesus would not have any problem with a man coveting his neighbor's wife. That is in complete opposition to the Jesus we read about in the rest of the New Testament.
Also: Your strange interpretation of Jesus' temptation of "weightlessness" is dubious at best. Jesus was simply challenged to jump off the temple roof, to prove Himself Son of God. Simply put, it was Satan saying, "Prove you are Son of God, because I don't believe you. And if you don't prove yourself, then obviously you are scared and don't even believe." It had nothing to do with Jesus being tempted by "weightlessness." Zero.
And finally, the big one: Your linking of Jesus' saying we shall not covet (lust after) our neighbor's wife, actually condemns Jesus Himself because the bible says He was tempted; This isn't just dubious. It is the blatant use of equivocation to spin the context of the word "tempted." The bible says Jesus was tempted. The correct context of the word is as a description of the action Satan was taking, or attempting. Satan was
attempting to tempt Jesus into perpetrating a certain action. You falsely argued that essentially Satan was successful, and Jesus entered into a state of temptation. You argued that Jesus failed to avoid or fight off temptation. The bible never intended to claim such a thing. Such a claim would be in direct opposition to everything else the bible said about Christ.
My first impression is you obviously have some beef with Matthew and Augustine, 2 absolute
Titans in the hierarchy of New Testament Theology; you have some very radical views that are 180
° in the opposite direction of established, common sense biblical views; and you are tempted )) to equivocate key words of biblical verses to give your radical views a shred of plausibility.
Still, what concerns me most is the unmistakable scent of New Age philosophy, with the believing and embracing some biblical verses, and rejecting others.