Did Most Early Christians Believe The Divinity of Christ?

Oh for goodness'sake.
is that really the reason?

I mean the Amish, and othe cults tell their people that...but the punishment tells me otherwise.

When someone tells me that if I dont follow their path (not a path, but their path) that I will not get to their heaven or will go to their hell... It immediately is a red flag...when they say "But what if you are wrong" I get my coat.

It is my feeling your teachings should make me willingly want to learn more without the coercion of carrots or whips.
 
On a list of archeological sites I would one day like to visit, the area in and around Glastonbury, more specifically the tin mines and Mendip Hills, and a side trip to Tintagel Castle...and with time and money a hop over to Ireland to Skellig Michael, would rank very near the top of places I long to lay eyes on and not rely on mere words.

Because they are not germane to this specific discussion I would have to leave the legends of King Arthur and St Patrick out of the equation for now and focus specifically *on the early Christians* (they don't get any earlier) that conducted their services in the old Wattle Church founded by Jesus and his kin. The monastery at Glastonbury was destroyed under Henry VIII, and I've read the Wattle Church itself was destroyed by fire in the 11th century. Add in that (don't take this wrong) the Catholic Church moved in and took over, there is probably precious little other than the lingering legends left to assist us with determining what exactly Christ expected of His followers. I know you poopoo the suggestion, but these same Christians were ruled over at one time by Constantine's Father, and upon that man's death his soldiers robed Constantine "with the purple" making him the new Emperor of Roman Britain (much to the dismay of Galerius, I might add, who had gone to great lengths to subvert Constantine's rise to power). No doubt a significant number, perhaps a sizeable minority, of those soldiers were British Christians, and this predates the Catholic Church. Mind you, throughout the rest of the Empire at this moment in time when Constantine was elevated to be Emperor of the West, to be Christian anywhere else was to take your life in your hands, the Persecution of Diocletian and Galerius was in full swing at the time, and while it can be said the other persecutions were sporadic and localized, the Persecution of Diocletian is widely recognized by historians as the "worst" (if you were Christian) of all of them. (This is later reflected at Nicea, but that is still 12-14 years in the future) Roman Britain was the only relatively safe place throughout the Empire where Christianity was tolerated during the Great Persecution, because of Constantius and then Constantine.

Those same British Christian soldiers would have been among the ranks that marched with Constantine all the way to the Milvian Bridge. One would think that if there is any source material (perhaps in Latin?) describing these Christian soldiers and their ways and means, that should go far to aid in establishing what exactly the earliest Christians believed. Of course for precisely that reason such documents, if they exist, would likely not see wide audience.

Since these Christians were converted Celts (specifically the Dumnonii) they would not have carried the same religious obligations as their Jewish counterparts, and instead would have entered into the faith with a very different worldview.
Early Church in the British Isles, before the Roman Church - The Culdee Church. Or I've read references to the Culdee Church. I even have a book, Celt, Druide, & Culdee by Isabel Hill Elder.
 
The Qur'an "assumes authority" .. if you believe that it was dictated to Muhammad by the One God
through Angel Gabriel, that is.
If not, it has no authority whatsoever. The same goes for the Christian Bible.

Personally, I'm not in favour of an atheist society .. are you?
I wonder what you mean by "atheist society"
Secular society, yes. Of course I want that.
By that I mean a society where religion is not imposed by the governing authorities.
When you say atheist society, do you mean:
a) a society where people are free to be atheists or
b) a society where atheism is imposed or enforced somehow - I suppose by suppressing all forms of religion? As I believe was the case in Communist regimes?

The legal doctrine in systems with freedom of religion:
"There is to be no compulsion in matters of religion"
That one. That's the society I want.
Luckily enough, for now at least, in my society I still have that.
There are factions in my society that would like to overturn that freedom, and compel religion or at least base government enforceable laws on the teachings of their religion
I am not in favor of that.
For now, our system remains secular and religion is is not compelled.
 
Constitutions can be changed. They are fluid.
In many parts of the world, we have military coups designed to "put in their man" and amend constitutions.

If we have a democratic government that proclaims it rules on behalf of God, as specified by some religion, there can
certainly be problems. I would not agree that it is always a bad thing, but if it is not endorsed by the general public, then yes .. it is bad.
But what if it is endorsed by the general public, or a faction of the general public, yet a religious minority or non religious minority feels their way of life is being stifled by a government that rules on behalf of God? What does it mean to rule on behalf of God? Is it just language? Or does it mean writing"God's rules" into law?
So in practical terms everyone who lives in that country is restricted to behaviors allowed in the ruling party's religion, even if they themselves do not practice or agree with that religion.
 
When you say atheist society, do you mean:
a) a society where people are free to be atheists or
b) a society where atheism is imposed or enforced somehow - I suppose by suppressing all forms of religion? As I believe was the case in Communist regimes?
I mean one in which the majority of people are atheists..
I am in favour of a democratic society, so if the majority of people ARE atheists,
I would have to bear it with patience, and follow the law etc.

Conversely, if the majority were not atheists, I do not see why atheists should expect
always to "get their own way" .. it wouldn't be a democracy.

The legal doctrine in systems with freedom of religion:
"There is to be no compulsion in matters of religion"
Sure .. but not when it comes to literally "getting away with murder"..

For now, our system remains secular and religion is is not compelled.
I think there is a difference between allowing people to be Christian, Hindu, etc. and expecting
a legal system of one's own choosing.
 
What does it mean to rule on behalf of God? Is it just language?
No .. it means being fair to all citizens.
Law is not an easy matter at all.
If it was, we would see all 50 states of US in agreement. :D

So in practical terms everyone who lives in that country is restricted to behaviors allowed in the ruling party's religion, even if they themselves do not practice or agree with that religion.
..and that is a weakness in a democracy..
Some party might decide to impose their laws on others, in an unfair way.
It is not restricted to religions .. ANY party is capable of corruption.
 
No, others could be
Opening John with Logos?

I suppose you're right. For a long time it was assumed to be a gnostic reference, then a purely Hellenic one ...

The opening of John 1 firmly seats the prologue in the Biblical Tradition: 'In the beginning' en arche
is the same phrase as used in the Septuagint Genesis 1:1.

John is stating that Jesus is the Divine Sophia, but as Sophia is feminine, he uses the masculine Logos.

I could wax on about this ... nudge me if interested.
 
Opening John with Logos?

I suppose you're right. For a long time it was assumed to be a gnostic reference, then a purely Hellenic one ...

The opening of John 1 firmly seats the prologue in the Biblical Tradition: 'In the beginning' en arche
is the same phrase as used in the Septuagint Genesis 1:1.

John is stating that Jesus is the Divine Sophia, but as Sophia is feminine, he uses the masculine Logos.

I could wax on about this ... nudge me if interested.
Interesting.
Wax away
(wax on, wax off...)
 
OK. The origin of this particular query goes back to a comment by @muhammad_isa:

"In the beginning was the Logos, and the Logos was with God, and the Logos was God" - John 1:1 -

Yes, very philosophical .. but did Jesus call himself the Logos? The idea of Logos is just Greek philosophy, isn't it?
Why did John [ whoever he was ] write that?
It ends up with The Logos WAS God .. Is the Logos still God today?
If it mean the Logos IS God, then how can the Logos be WITH God.

What???
I'm sorry ..but it reads a bit like a fairy tale to me. What you would call "gnostic", I suppose."


So let's tackle this point by point:

... very philosophical ...
Well language depends on context. In this instance, theological.

... but did Jesus call himself the Logos?[
No, that's John's theology. Jesus alluded to Himself as such. (cf John 8:12, 14:6).

The idea of Logos is just Greek philosophy, isn't it?
Logos is just the Greek term. The same idea in Hebrew is memra

Why did John [ whoever he was ] write that?
The opening of John's Gospel clearly parallels the creation account in Genesis 1. Both open with 'In the beginning' (John's en arche is the same as the Septuagint Genesis 1) and then goes on to assert the light of Genesis 1:3 being "In him was life; and the life was the light of men. And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not." (v4-5).

First, John establishes a continuity by reference to the the Hebraic root of the Christian Revelation.
Second, by identifying Jesus as the Logos of God (v1) and the life and light of humanity (v4-5) he establishes a continuity of the of humanity's Adamic inheritance, as made by God to walk and talk with God in Paradise, but brought low by a self-inflicted wound which occluded that primordial light.

John is asserting an Hebraic holistic outlook – that in Jesus the spiritual and the physical worlds, sundered by the fall, are joined in the person of Christ. St Paul got this – Jesus put right what had gone wrong in Adam.

It ends up with The Logos WAS God .. Is the Logos still God today?
Yes. John is affirming that Jesus is eternal – that Jesus is Logos, but the Logos is not 'new', there always was Logos, and it is God.

If it mean the Logos IS God, then how can the Logos be WITH God.
The Jews understand this, it's in Scripture.

The use of 'Logos', as well as Genesis 1, is there in Psalms 33:6 "By the word (LXX logos) of the Lord (LXX kurios) were the heavens made". The idea of God, unknowable in Himself, reveals Himself in creation, comes out of the Hebrew Scriptures.

The Word, embodying the divine will – cf Psalms 3:4; Isaiah 40:8; Psalm 119:105), Psalm 107:20, Psalm 147:15 and Isaiah 55:11.
The personified Wisdom of God – Job 28:12 and Proverbs Chapters 8 and 9, notably 8:22-30: "The Lord possessed me in the beginning of his way ...
The Angel of the Lord is sometimes distinguished from the Lord and sometimes identical with him (Genesis 16:7-13; 32:24-28; Hosea 12:4, 5; Exodus 23:20, 21; Malachi 3:l).

In the apocryphal Wisdom of Solomon wisdom is another name for the divine, a light proceeding from God; an image of God, co-occupant of the divine throne, an independent mediator between God and the world, in association with a spirit which is called μονογενες, only begotten (7:22).

After the Babylonian captivity the Jews combined the theophanies, prophetic revelations and manifestations of JHWH under a single concept of an agent of the Lord in the phenomenal world, designated by the name Memra (Gk, logos) of the Lord. The term was introduced into the Targums, or Aramæan paraphrases of the Old Testament, which were publicly read in the synagogues, substituting Memra (Logos) for JHWH.

Logos is there in Philo, a contemporary of John's.

John's doctrine and terms are informed by Hebrew and Hellenic speculation, but surpasses them. John's doctrine is not certainly not Greek, nor is it Philo's, and nor does it depend on either. Though both use the term Logos, he uses it with an utterly different meaning. In John it signifies the immanent presence of God, as it does in Scripture generally.

In John the Messiah is the Logos, uniting himself with humanity, and clothing himself with a body in order to save the world.

The Logos of John is the real, personal God (1:1), the Word, who was originally before the creation with God, and was God, one in essence and nature, yet personally distinct (1:1, 18); the revealer and interpreter of the hidden being of God; the reflection and visible image of God, and the organ of all His manifestations to the world (cf Hebrews 1:3). He made all things, proceeding personally from God for the accomplishment of the act of creation (1:3), and became man in the person of Jesus Christ, accomplishing the redemption of the world. (The hymns written into Philippians Chapter 2 and Colossians 1 encompass the idea of Christ's co-eternity and co-equality with God, the latter also underpins the idea of Logos, and both hymns predate written Scripture : expresses the same thing, and that was a liturgical hymn that St Paul utilised in his letter.)

But in answer to the initial point, the term 'logos' would not be unknown to his audience, and they probably understood it better than we do today, for the idea that Logos means Word is a very poor translation indeed, the term means much, much more than that.
 
..so they espouse Hellenistic Judaism, then?
Did I say that? 🙄

Personally, I would rather not take my creed/philosophy from either Philo or John.
Well Christianity doesn't take it from Philo, and I can understand your antipathy towards John.

I would rather take it from what Jesus is reported to have said..
I rather think you take your creed/philosophy from what the Prophet (pbuh) wrote and later Islamic teachings.
 
..not in so many words.. you said they were contemporaries.
Alive at the same time, but Philo and John clearly had quite different ideas about the Logos. Philo was closer to the Platonic and Stoic expression, the Greek demiurge, intent on protecting the sanctity of God while affirming God acting in history.

John's use of Logos is unique in that he centred it on the Incarnate Christ, but still 'orthodox' in the Jewish sense, underpinned by the Hebrew theology.
 
Early Church in the British Isles, before the Roman Church - The Culdee Church. Or I've read references to the Culdee Church. I even have a book, Celt, Druide, & Culdee by Isabel Hill Elder.
I wasn't familiar with the term Culdee, and thought perhaps you had mixed it up with Chaldee.

The Culdees (Irish: Céilí Dé, lit. "Spouses of God") were members of ascetic Christian monastic and eremitical communities of Ireland, Scotland, Wales and England in the Middle Ages. Appearing first in Ireland and subsequently in Scotland, attached to cathedral or collegiate churches, they lived in monastic fashion though not taking monastic vows.

The only thing I would say is the Middle Ages were long after the early Church.

But yes, if ever there were an incubator to distinguish the teachings of Jesus, it would be at Glastonbury to be found. It would be there that the teachings to non-Jews would seem to be evident and distinct.
 
I mean one in which the majority of people are atheists..
I am in favour of a democratic society, so if the majority of people ARE atheists,
I would have to bear it with patience, and follow the law etc.

Conversely, if the majority were not atheists, I do not see why atheists should expect
always to "get their own way" .. it wouldn't be a democracy.


Sure .. but not when it comes to literally "getting away with murder"..


I think there is a difference between allowing people to be Christian, Hindu, etc. and expecting
a legal system of one's own choosing.
Interesting... but... something I'm not clear on is, what do you mean by "atheists expecting to get their own way"
Can you think of a for-instance? Or a series thereof?
 
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