S
Silas
Guest
1. If the Torah is meant to be taken so literally, why are apparent literal passages interpreted by Jesus and the evangelists as figurative prophecy for the life of Christ?
What part of the Torah are you speaking about? The Torah, like the Bible, are to be taken literally in places where God means for it to be taken literally, e.g., laws, etc. Some places are symbolic, poetic, historic, etc.
2. If the Torah and Tanakh are so resistent to liberal interpretation, why does Jesus paraphrase frequently?
Jesus' paraphrase didnt take away anything from the Torah, but made it more difficult. For example, Jesus said: "You have heard it said [of the Torah] Do not commit adultery, but I say unto you that if you look upon a woman to lust after her, you have already commited adultery with her in your heart."
3. If one reads the Bible as wholly literal, or without historical context, or without the assumption that fallible men wrote it, don't errors in logic appear? From the mountain from which the entire world can be seen, to the sudden naming of God? If one attempts to reconcile these things, doesn't that lead one to mystical interpretation?
Good point! This is why it is important to study God's soveregnity and to know that God is in control of everything, even man's choices. God is sovereign in the cannonizing of the Bible. Everything is as He ordained it to be. As far as the mystical interpretation. No, there's no room for gnostism, only faith to believe what the scriptures say. And, they say that God is sovereign over everything, even man's choices.
4. If the Bible is perfect, why are books cited that never became part of canon, though they are quoted as scripture? Why did the more anti-semitic Church fathers accuse Jews of changing scripture to blot out mention of Jesus? Why weren't the gospels written by the authors together, or combined by the Apostles rather than Romans, if they were to be whole and perfect?
1. Some books never made it into the cannon because they didnt meet the criteria, e.g., the werent written by Apostles, or disciples of Apostles, they didnt agree with the Old Testament (which was already accepted by Jew and Christian as inspired), they [the gnostic text] came years after what was already cannonized, etc. Lastly, God is in control. His word to mankind is of the utmost importance and He would not let us have anything than what He wanted.
2. Who cares what the anti-semitic "church fathers" did?
3. The gospels were written by eye witnesses and disciples of eye witnesses.
5. Why do Papists and Prods frequently raise the spectre of 'anti-Christ' and 'devil' to condemn rival Christians when in the gospel Jesus is accused by the apparently pious as devil-possessed and blasphemous? Isn't this tempting fate?
No. We are to contend for the truth and for the faith. If we see hersey, we say with the Apostle Paul, "let them who teach these lies be anathama or accursed."
6. If Jesus can negate circumcision and food laws with logic, isn't it logical that he negated violence and snide judgement by the words of 'forbid them not' and 'he who lives by the sword'? Why is it assumed that the Torah trumps the NC when it comes to matters of judgement and violence?
Who assumes that the Torah trumps the NT and Jesus? Certainly not the Christian.
What part of the Torah are you speaking about? The Torah, like the Bible, are to be taken literally in places where God means for it to be taken literally, e.g., laws, etc. Some places are symbolic, poetic, historic, etc.
2. If the Torah and Tanakh are so resistent to liberal interpretation, why does Jesus paraphrase frequently?
Jesus' paraphrase didnt take away anything from the Torah, but made it more difficult. For example, Jesus said: "You have heard it said [of the Torah] Do not commit adultery, but I say unto you that if you look upon a woman to lust after her, you have already commited adultery with her in your heart."
3. If one reads the Bible as wholly literal, or without historical context, or without the assumption that fallible men wrote it, don't errors in logic appear? From the mountain from which the entire world can be seen, to the sudden naming of God? If one attempts to reconcile these things, doesn't that lead one to mystical interpretation?
Good point! This is why it is important to study God's soveregnity and to know that God is in control of everything, even man's choices. God is sovereign in the cannonizing of the Bible. Everything is as He ordained it to be. As far as the mystical interpretation. No, there's no room for gnostism, only faith to believe what the scriptures say. And, they say that God is sovereign over everything, even man's choices.
4. If the Bible is perfect, why are books cited that never became part of canon, though they are quoted as scripture? Why did the more anti-semitic Church fathers accuse Jews of changing scripture to blot out mention of Jesus? Why weren't the gospels written by the authors together, or combined by the Apostles rather than Romans, if they were to be whole and perfect?
1. Some books never made it into the cannon because they didnt meet the criteria, e.g., the werent written by Apostles, or disciples of Apostles, they didnt agree with the Old Testament (which was already accepted by Jew and Christian as inspired), they [the gnostic text] came years after what was already cannonized, etc. Lastly, God is in control. His word to mankind is of the utmost importance and He would not let us have anything than what He wanted.
2. Who cares what the anti-semitic "church fathers" did?
3. The gospels were written by eye witnesses and disciples of eye witnesses.
5. Why do Papists and Prods frequently raise the spectre of 'anti-Christ' and 'devil' to condemn rival Christians when in the gospel Jesus is accused by the apparently pious as devil-possessed and blasphemous? Isn't this tempting fate?
No. We are to contend for the truth and for the faith. If we see hersey, we say with the Apostle Paul, "let them who teach these lies be anathama or accursed."
6. If Jesus can negate circumcision and food laws with logic, isn't it logical that he negated violence and snide judgement by the words of 'forbid them not' and 'he who lives by the sword'? Why is it assumed that the Torah trumps the NC when it comes to matters of judgement and violence?
Who assumes that the Torah trumps the NT and Jesus? Certainly not the Christian.
