The problem is the Quran is not considered a 7th century theological treatise written by Muhammad,but the eternal Word of God revealed in clear Arabic.
Irrelevant.Due to breaking of code of conduct.I want you to leave this thread.
The problem is that you are obviously not aware that the Prophet Mohammad(pbuh) was an illiterate. He could neither read not write.
It's ok if your replying this but that's irrelevant to thread and that's what the people like mansio are waiting for.
This is an interfaith forum. If you want to change it into a faith forum then I'll leave. But I'll wait first that you drop the "inter" from the word "interfaith".
Interfaith forums > Religion, Faith, and Theology > Monotheism > Islam
Are you blind?.This is a interfaith forum as well as islam forum.
I said, still in response to Vajradhara, that IF the Quran would have been written by (or under the direction of) Muhammad (or anybody else) then things like the "beating" of the wife could be easily ignored by 21st century Muslims.
But as the Quran is considered the very Word of God then what is written is written and embarrassing things cannot be easily explained away
Irrelevant.In short this is what you have done
Breaking of Rule of organised discussion.
Breaking of code of conduct
Aggressive criticization.
Making claims without evidence.
Forcing your opinions on everyone.
thipps....i also think that in answering potentially offensive comments it shows more decorum to simply request politely that the person concerned refrain from being offensive. if you start answering in a similar tone it all just disintegrates into a slanging match, which is really a bit pointless
He was answering it in a polite manner,although irrelevant to thread
your comment about mohammad (pbuh) being illiterate....from the point of view of a questioner from outside the faith, this is something rather questionable and needs some clarification. i often hear muslim lecturers stressing the fact that mohammad (pbuh) was illiterate and sometimes even making wild claims that he had no access to jewish or christian scriptures (presumably because he could not read)....however this is somewhat misleading and anyone who investigates further will find these comments to be misleading and will wonder about the motives of those who make such rash claims..
See where this irrelevant conversation is going?.It's so easy to start new thread in comparative section.Isn't it?
mohammad (pbuh) was illiterate.....but that does not mean he was "thick". in the culture of the time most people were illiterate, but they were an intelligent people well versed in poetry and able to memorise and recite vast amounts of information. as many illiterate cultures, people were very "focused" mentally. prophet mohammad (pbuh) also definitely did have access to both jews and christians. i am not trying to suggest that mohammad (pbuh) made up the quran himself, but it seems to me that it would be better to look for the validity of the quran in its meaning rather than stressing its miraculousness because mohammad (pbuh) was illiterate because this is a somewhat debateable point and therefore not convincing to an "outsider".
Irrelevant
I have yet to see any serious attempt to answer my question,that is i was asking which transaltion is correct and why?.What about edip yuksel explanation?.