We now know there is no virgin birth in the bible the words translated later to virgin referred to maiden and young woman...seems this will be argued forever.
Seems so ... but that's because we know nothing of the sort you claim.
Justin Martyr argued this point with his Jewish rival Trypho two thousand years ago. Trypho insisted that the Septuagint Greek term
parthenos 'virgin' was an inaccurate translation of the Hebrew
'almah 'young woman'.
Before we go further, it should be noted that there is no case in scripture where the term
'almah refers to a woman who is not a virgin, and furthermore the term has the same connotation as 'maiden' and 'damsel' which, whilst not connoting virginity, would not be used of a married woman.
Also, taking the text:
"Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel"
In which case, the birth of a child to a married woman, or a woman who was not a virgin, is hardly a sign, is it?
Again, when the birth a child is a sign from God, invariably it is a child born to a woman beyond her child-bearing years ... but in this instance, that the woman is young and of child-bearing age, the sign needs must take another form.
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What is evident in both the Matthaen and Lucan choice of Scripture is that such texts point to Jesus as being the Messiah, that's what they believed, and that's why they made the reference in the text.
Matthew and Luke believed Jesus Christ was the Son of God, even though the texts
themselves do not say that — and the Evangelists are not saying they do ... rather that the oracles points towards a future event, a sign from God, which shall make itself known, and which has come to pass.
The evidence of Matthew and Luke can equally and reasonably signify that they interpret the Isaian oracle in light of what has been revealed to them, and not what is implicit in the text itself.
They are not using Isaiah to prove the virgin birth, they have the evidence of the virgin birth which reveals the mystery implicit in Isaiah's oracle, in the same way they are not using Isaiah to claim the divinity of the Son (he doesn't) ... they are.
Mark also makes the point when he says "Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joseph, and Jude, and Simon? are not also his sisters here with us?" (Mark 6:3)
Why not Jesus the son of Joseph, as was the custom? Perhaps to distinguish between Jesus (the son of Mary) and his brothers and sisters, who were sons of Joseph but not of Mary?
The fact that the argument will go on and on is precisely because it is not proved
either way ... it is a matter of faith ... you either believe it, or you don't.
Thomas