Hi Netti-Netti —
G-d continually responds to our thoughts and actions with all the perfection of G-d’s character;
Is that not what love is?
and that interweaving of our action and G-d’s response of grace yields an overall whole that is richer than either would have been on its own.
The Christian Tradition would rather say that by the Grace of God we attain to a richness that would have been impossible without Him, for God alone knows the good to which His creature is destined. According to its philophical tradition, God is both the efficient cause and the final cause — the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end, the emergence of a being brought out of nought but the Divine Will, and ordered to no other end but full communion with its Cause ... but the point remains that if the created nature chooses, as we are discussing rational natures here, and a dimension of rationality is freedom, to seeks its proper end in God, then this end is foreknown and forsenn, so God profits nothing by it. If, on the other hand, the creatiure chooses tro pursue and end other than this union, then it seeks that which is ontologically non-existent, and so itself enters into non-existence, and again God suffers nothing by this course of action either, for no human activity, no matter how productive, can be said to alter the Divine Nature in any degree — thus the richness is ours, but not Gods.
Take human ature as an example: A person can choose to follow all the virtues anrd realise a perfect existence (even within the corporeal domain of its own corporeality), but this does not alter human nature in any way — human nature is not altered nor enriched because what is humanly possible is already there, as a reality, within the nature itself — the human cannot realise anything but the fulfillment of that nature of which it is but one instance. On the othe rhand a human can choose a life of dissolution, and again human nature itself is not intrinsically altered because of it ... the nature rmains what it is, simply the person has failed to fulfil his or her potential.
Only the finite creature, subject to contingency, experiences richness or not-richness ...
The irony. In the Bible Jesus is portrayed as a panentheist: "The Father is in me and I am in the Father." ( John 10:37-38)
That is certainly one reading of the text, but it is not the only one — a Docetic reading is also entirely possible, and indeed reasonable, in the sense that if He and the Father is One, and the Father is spirit alone, then the physicality of Jesus, the humanity of Christ, is illusory. He is a spiritual entity with only the seemingness of humanity.
It seems I'm not the first to notice:
The conscious realization of a life in God, and not as a speculative thesis to be argued and disputed, is the fundamental thought in the system taught by the Christ--a union with God so complete in every department of our being that we can say: "The Father is in me and I am in the Father," and "I and my Father are one."
Indeed, but Docetism, which seems affirmed by this text, is not panenthesim.
Questions of contradiction, paradox and dichotomy with regard to the text can only be resolved by reference to the text itself. Against the citation employed, we have another, "for the Father is greater than I" (John 14:28), and indeed a raft of others, Psalm 85:10, Ecclesiasticus 3:21, Luke 5:21, Luke 18:19 "And Jesus said to him: Why dost thou call me good? None is good but God alone."
The resolution of which I am guided by those theologians and mystics of the text (and indeed the terms are almost synonymous), who stand to another conclusion, formally pronounced at Chalcedon, whose words upon the matter offer me an unrivalled richness of understanding. They alone, to my mind, open up and ever deeper penetration into the mystery of being, and non-being, and beyond-being, whereas other solutions, in which i include panthesim and panentheism, seem to me to shut it down.
As Christ said in the mouth of John th Divine, "How can you believe, who receive glory one from another (pan[en]theism): and the glory which is from God alone, (monotheism) you do not seek?" (John 5:44).
A Christian Pantheism which does not destroy the individuality of man...
It seems to me however that such a panentheism does precisely tgat, it renders the essential nature of humanity as an accidental one, thus ephemaral, contingent and no part of the Divine Nature, for the Divine Nature, like any nature, is one and indivisible, entire and complete in all its parts.
nor separate God from the universe which he continually creates out of Himself,
Here I disagree, as I believe in creatio ex nihilo. For me God beings being into actual existence, which is thereby an authentic creatio, which is incomparably greater than 'out of Himself', by which what seems to exist has no actuality. All creation is subsistent actuality, for sure, but its actuality is nevertheless real and concrete in itself.
It is axiomatic there is God and nought else, but if that is the case, then if God creates out of Himself, there is no other but God created ... and I'm back to tha paradox that the Divine eseence cannot be other than Divine, with all that the term implies ... and which we are not.
nor sunder Him from the activities of the human soul by the intervention of second causes, is the highest development of religious thought.
But panentheism by definition is a second cause, for God calls His creature to seek God as God ... whereas panentheis posits God in creation, of which the 'en' infers is not God-as-such ... this is what Denys, Eriugena, Eckhart, Cusa and others allude to ... nothing can be predicated of God in the order of knowing, because God transcends knowledge, God is not knowledge, but knowledge is an interface, if you will, ieven the knowledge of God ... even the Divine Name is not God, but an interface by which we might comprehend the incomprehensible ... whereas panthesim and panentheism are attempts to determine the Divine Nature according to material things.
I am not saying God is not in things, nor that all things are not in God, but I am saying, following the line of the apophatists, that God is not a thing; not a form, not an idea, not a body, and that personally I seek God in that that is not which and there is nought in God but God ... as St Denys says: "For a super-essential understanding of It is proper to Unknowing, which lieth in the Super-Essence Thereof surpassing Discourse, Intuition and Being" (The Divine Names), "direct our path to the ultimate summit of your mystical knowledge, most incomprehensible, most luminous and most exalted, where the pure, absolute and immutable mysteries of theology are veiled in the dazzling obscurity of the secret Silence, outshining all brilliance with the intensity of their Darkness, and surcharging our blinded intellects with the utterly impalpable and invisible fairness of glories surpassing all beauty." (The Mytical theology).
An intuitive perception of the unity of the human with the Divine existence is the highest attainable spiritual intelligence, and one which raises man above disease and the possibility of death.
But if all that exists is divine, then humanity does not exist, and the idea of a union of an essence with itself is a nonsense, as an essence is immutably one.
I think Warren Felt Evans would have had a problem with you telling him he's not a Christian. He might also have had a problem with you positioning yourself as someone who can say conclusively what views are "Christian" and which are not.
Well one might ask what gives Warren Felt Evans the right to decide what is Christian and who is not by the same token. I am not saying he is not Christian, I don't know him or hios works, but I am saying that the arguments you present me are not conclusive and certain errors, according to what I call 'traditional' Christianity, are evident.
Furthermore every argument I have presented you have not replied to, but simply shifted to some other point of dispute. So I assume you too have no response to the argument I present, but are simply intent on disputation.
I'm not sure what the issue is here. Are you saying that Aquinas and Aristotle used the term "accident" differently, thus indicating different metaphysics, and that's why Aquinas was not "hobbled" by Aristotle ?
No. I'm saying they use the term accident according to its lexical understanding in the Greek philosophical tradition., whereas the use of the term by Clayton is either erroneous — a confusion of essence and accidents — or he's redefining the term, in which case he posits a non-Christian metaphysic.
And as Aristotle is still considered an authority even today, and studied at great length across the globe, I can't see how he can be described as 'hobbled' in his determinations. Especially as his theory of categories, from which accidents derive, is still considered a workable hypothesis and one that has been expanded upon at length, and perhaps even denied, but not to my knowledge surpassed.
Thomas