The son of man

You say it is metaphorical, most people say it is literal. So who should I believe? You, or the other 2 billion Christians who accept it as literal?

I think it may help to look at the history of the idea. The following link is to an article about the ideas of Philo of Alexandria and/or other Hellenism-inspired philosophies.

Greek Philosophy and the Trinity

Incidentally I don't believe traditional Trinity doctrine -- I am just digging up what verses I can that might satisfactorily answer the original question.

I'm aware of that. I was just stating what I considered to be a "rational" position.
 
Not good references Thomas.
D'you not think so?

They clearly do not answer the question.
I beg to differ. I like yours, though.

Of course Trinity doctrine -- a path I will not go down at this point -- relies heavily on this single verse of Scripture.
D'you think so?

I would have thought the implication of John 14:16:
"And I will ask the Father, and he shall give you another Paraclete, that he may abide with you for ever." (Then John 14:26, 15:26 and 16:7)

God bless,

Thomas
 
I would have thought the implication of John 14:16:
"And I will ask the Father, and he shall give you another Paraclete, that he may abide with you for ever." (Then John 14:26, 15:26 and 16:7)

God bless,

Thomas
There are lots of Bible verses from which, collectively, the Trinity doctrine has developed. I accept that there are three persons in the Trinity -- God the Father, Jesus the son, and the Holy Spirit.

What I cannot accept is that these three persons are claimed to be equal in authority and importance.

Nowhere in the Bible is Trinity doctrine set out in one place. I have participated in countless discussions about Trinity and this is one doctrine on which there will never be agreement.
 
"Whosoever therefore shall humble himself as this little child, he is the greater in the kingdom of heaven. And he that shall receive one such little child in my name, receiveth me." Matthew 18:4-5

"And Jesus said to them: I am the bread of life: he that cometh to me shall not hunger: and he that believeth in me shall never thirst." John 6:35

Thomas

Oi Thomas:

Again, there is no mention of Jesus being a god. Even he does not say he is a god. He believed he was sent by God to do God's work and preach God's message. Jesus said he was not good, only God is good.

John 6:35 sounds to me that he is urging people to heed his wisdom and teachings. "I am the bread of life" does not mean Jesus thought he was made from (like) flower dough. It was a linguistic simile. It means that his message is like bread to the human mind, morality, compassion, and knowledge. He who cometh to me shall not hunger; and believeth in me shall not thirst. He is not advertising for the local delicatessen. He speaks using the simile of speech. Hunger is like the desire for knowing the path to a good life. Thirst is like (again a simile) the essential human desire to know and fuels inquiry, study, and empirical observation.

Keep in mind that even today, Middle Easterners talk in metaphors, similes, and parables. Those of his culture 2000 years ago would understand that. It is this reason that the vast majority of Jewish contemporaries never thought of him as a god. Only Pagan converts, who never met Jesus, of a Greco-Roman culture either accidentally or deliberately bent those figures of speech into a form fitting Indo-European Paganism.

Likewise, some of our 21st Century figures of speech would perplex the real contemporary followers of Jesus.

"I am going to TAKE a walk." (Dig up the sidewalk and cart it away?)

"I am going to TAKE a leak." (Take it where? And do what with the leak)

"Bugger off, Mate" (Does not mean one tells his spouse to brush of the insects on her.)

"A sight for sore eyes" (does not mean visual refraction or having viral conjunctivitis treated with Neosporin.)

"The Sun sets at 1600 hours today" (does not mean that the Sun actually goes around the Earth. Sunset is the Earth rotating counter-clockwise away from the direction of the Sun.)

"A brainstorm" (does not mean small cerebral tornados, brainstem hurricanes, or skull suture line quakes.)

Sorry old chap if I belaboured my point. Does it make sense to you? Remember Greeks wrote the Gospels in Greek translating oral stories from people who got them from other people and other people who died. Oral stories tend to be embellished. We do not even know how much these Greek evangelists understood of Hebrew or Aramaic.

Amergin
 
There are lots of Bible verses from which, collectively, the Trinity doctrine has developed. I accept that there are three persons in the Trinity -- God the Father, Jesus the son, and the Holy Spirit.
OK.

What I cannot accept is that these three persons are claimed to be equal in authority and importance.
Well, in traditional theology, the Father takes priority.

I have participated in countless discussions about Trinity and this is one doctrine on which there will never be agreement.
Well, I wouldn't say 'never' — the Catholic and Orthodox traditions are largely in agreement, with the exception of the infamous filioque clause, but then even that has now been declared as no stumbling block to unity.

The Trinity is a Mystery, so there will always be an aspect which cannot be defined, and one can only ever talk in analogous terms.

The saddest thing I find are those who make claims about what the Trinity is, or isn't, without even having taken the effort to find out what the doctrine actually says.

God bless,

Thomas
 
Oi Thomas:
Again, there is no mention of Jesus being a god.
Often in Scripture, Jesus acts in His own name, and this is hugely significant in a monotheist context. Prophets don't do this, they are usually at pains to make it clear 'it is the Lord who speaks' — but Jesus forgives sin, heals, performs miracles in His own name which is a claim to divinity in the eyes of His audience , which is why they react so strongly against Him when He does.

The trouble today is we are so far removed from the text, we do not see it.

John 6:35 sounds to me that he is urging people to heed his wisdom and teachings. "I am the bread of life" does not mean Jesus thought he was made from (like) flower dough. It was a linguistic simile.
Oooh, no ... it was a direct allusion to the manna from heaven in the desert, and it's that which makes it an implicit claim to divinity.

In the desert, God fed the people, with a miraculous food ... here, Christ is not only the one feeding (not God), but He is Himself the miraculous food.

I think where we differ is, it seems to me, you're applying empirical rules to something that is not empirically determined. Or, put another way, people try to rationalise that which is supra-rational.

Keep in mind that even today, Middle Easterners talk in metaphors, similes, and parables. Those of his culture 2000 years ago would understand that.
Yes, but my point is, 2000 years ago the partition between the natural and the supernatural was not as solid as it is today ... in those days people were sensitive to the essence of metaphor, simile and parable, whereas today they are reduced to a linguistic technique ... a matter of style.

It is this reason that the vast majority of Jewish contemporaries never thought of him as a god.
I don't think you can say that. His audience tried to stone Him for blasphemy on more than one occasion, so they were aware of what He was saying, whether they believed it or not is another matter.

Likewise, some of our 21st Century figures of speech would perplex the real contemporary followers of Jesus.
Then, by the same token, modernity is perplexed by these ancient figures of speech.

"I am going to TAKE a walk." (Dig up the sidewalk and cart it away?)
"I am going to TAKE a leak." (Take it where? And do what with the leak)
"Bugger off, Mate" (Does not mean one tells his spouse to brush of the insects on her.)
I think you've hoist yourself here, frankly ... no-one says that the saying of Jesus should be interpreted as you choose to. Your methodology is overtly literal, material ...

Sorry old chap if I belaboured my point. Does it make sense to you?
No, by your methods, most classic literature and nearly all poetry would equally need to be dismissed.

Thomas
 
I have participated in countless discussions about Trinity and this is one doctrine on which there will never be agreement.
Actually, that reminds me of a day we had on my course, we got into discussing the Trinity with our lecturer, and ended up almost playing a 'sudden-death' knockout game — the object of which was to talk about the Trinity for 30 seconds without drifting into heresy ...

Thomas
 
Often in Scripture, Jesus acts in His own name, and this is hugely significant in a monotheist context. Prophets don't do this, they are usually at pains to make it clear 'it is the Lord who speaks' — but Jesus forgives sin, heals, performs miracles in His own name which is a claim to divinity in the eyes of His audience , which is why they react so strongly against Him when He does.

Jesus does not say, "I forgive you." He says, "Your sins are forgiven." He merely states that God forgives you. He does not claim to be the one who forgives.


it was a direct allusion to the manna from heaven in the desert, and it's that which makes it an implicit claim to divinity. In the desert, God fed the people, with a miraculous food

It does not say that the manna was actually God but food sent by God.

... here, Christ is not only the one feeding (not God), but He is Himself the miraculous food.

That conclusion does not fit the syllogism.
Premise: God fed the desert Jews with food, not his being.
Premise: Jesus said, "Eat this bread in remembrance of me.
Error Conclusion: You are eating me when you eat this.

At the last Supper, Jesus was telling his apostles that he was going to be killed/sacrificed for humankind. His flesh and blood will spill out to the Earth. He told them to remember what he (Jesus) would sacrifice, e.g. his flesh (bread) and blood (wine.) Again, he speaks metaphorically. Jesus would feed humankind by his ministry, death, and resurrection. He would not feed them his muscles, liver, kidneys, heart, or lungs.

I think where we differ is, it seems to me, you're applying empirical rules to something that is not empirically determined. Or, put another way, people try to rationalise that which is supra-rational.

The existence of something supra rational or supernatural is an unproven assumption. We must view this empirically taking in the nature of Late Bronze Age Jewish ways of thinking, and communicating. To me it is obvious that Jews were expressing their beliefs by metaphor and simile. Jesus' use of parables is a good example of his teaching method. We still do that today but with more literalism and logic and try to rationalise Christianity to fit the current beliefs. In other words, we see the text as our pastor or priest tells us. Today it is difficult to take the text of the Bible as literally true, because of time and changing language interpretation.


Yes, but my point is, 2000 years ago the partition between the natural and the supernatural was not as solid as it is today ... in those days people were sensitive to the essence of metaphor, simile and parable, whereas today they are reduced to a linguistic technique ... a matter of style.

I think I am saying that. 2000 years ago, the Jewish people had very limited knowledge of geology, meteorology, the flow of rivers, rain, and growth of animals and plants. The science was absent except in embryonic form in the ancient Greek world. What makes a river flow, a volcano erupt, earthquakes, magma flows in the Jordan Valley Tectonic fault zone? The cause seemed invisible. They called the invisible movers spirits and later combined them into gods and one god. To make a workable worldview (however imaginary) required the imagination that formed religion. Why Jews were such skilled users of figures of speech is curious and may have come from faith under the gaze of foreign occupiers.


I don't think you can say that. His audience tried to stone Him for blasphemy on more than one occasion, so they were aware of what He was saying, whether they believed it or not is another matter.

Yeshua Ben Pacheria 100 years before Jesus practiced healing, miracles/magic, without claiming to be God. Jews convicted him of sorcery, stoned him to death. Monty Python in "Life of Brian" showed a skit in which any time one mentioned "Jehovah,” the speaker was stoned by the crowd.


Then, by the same token, modernity is perplexed by these ancient figures of speech. I think you've hoist yourself here, frankly ... no-one says that the saying of Jesus should be interpreted as you choose to. Your methodology is overtly literal, material ...

Problem is that nobody tells you or me how to interpret these strange verses and words. Our interpretations both tend to be opinions of which neither of us can prove or disprove.


No, by your methods, most classic literature and nearly all poetry would equally need to be dismissed.

Thomas

Not so. I have read much of the ancient classical literature and poetry. I love it. It does not mean that I must believe characters are necessarily real or if real were really Gods. I have read the Greek and Indian stories and poetry. In my homeland, I have read the Táin Bó Froích (Expedition by Ulster King Fraech all the way to North Italy and the Land of the Lombards on a raid of vengeance, about 580 AD.) I read both the Old Gaelic and the modern English translation I know it did not happen that way.

I read the Táin Bó Cualgne. This I consider the greatest Irish Pre-Christian Classic. I think Cuchulainn probably lived centuries before Jesus. I think his birth from a Virgin woman by the Sun God Lugh is mythological. I do not think Lugh also was born of a virgin and fathered by the High God Aed Álainn (also called Dagda.) Like the Christian New Testament, the story is a morality tale with magic and mystery, most of which I doubt to be literally true. However, the great Bards like Amhairghine (Amergin) used figures of speech that scholars debate today.

While one cannot interpret the Bible or the Gaelic Foclóir na Síde empirically or literally, I think attempting to subjectively interpret scripture, as do you, is not proven fact. The only thing that makes sense to me is that post-Constantine Christianity has a Trinitarian Indo-European theological structure, not Judaic. Similarity of myths from Donegal to India and Bali including Christianity cannot be simply dismissed.

Thanks for putting up with my rambling Thomas. Agus
Là an Altaithe! (Happy Thanksgiving in Irish)
Literal English: Day to Give Thanks.

Amergin
 
because he is a son and a man, a son of a man and the sun of the man (the sun) *yawns* i've got an opinion, yes >me<
 
Often in Scripture, Jesus acts in His own name, and this is hugely significant in a monotheist context. Prophets don't do this, they are usually at pains to make it clear 'it is the Lord who speaks' — but Jesus forgives sin, heals, performs miracles in His own name which is a claim to divinity in the eyes of His audience , which is why they react so strongly against Him when He does.

Does Jesus ever say, "I cure you," "I drive out the demons"? He proclaims "thy faith has saved thee" does not say, "Thy faith in me as god saves you." As he heals, or drives out demons he does not claim to be god. An agent of God could command demons to bugger off. A prayer for healing of a leper could merely be calling on god not himself.

The trouble today is we are so far removed from the text, we do not see it.

True, that is why we cannot put our desired belief (Jesus being God) cannot be claimed when it is not stated. If anything, an unbiased observer who reads the Gospels for the first time would not conclude that Jesus was God but a special prophet, or agent of God but clearly separate from God, as I have shown in previous posts.


Yes, but my point is, 2000 years ago the partition between the natural and the supernatural was not as solid as it is today ... in those days people were sensitive to the essence of metaphor, simile and parable, whereas today they are reduced to a linguistic technique ... a matter of style.

We still use simile and metaphor in language. 2000 years ago there was a partition between the natural and the not natural. However, since the supernatural is an unproven assumption, one can be competitive in saying the partition was between the natural and the mythological, or the natural and the imaginary.

His audience tried to stone Him for blasphemy on more than one occasion, so they were aware of what He was saying, whether they believed it or not is another matter.

Stoning was not the exclusive penalty for only blasphemy. One (like Yeshua ben Pacheria) could be stoned to death for sorcery, adultery, while blasphemy does also include negative remarks about God not necessarily claiming to be God. Your argument is fragile.

I think you've hoist yourself here, frankly ... no-one says that the saying of Jesus should be interpreted as you choose to. Your methodology is overtly literal, material ...

I am saying that the saying of Jesus should be spun by figures of speech into claiming to be God, when literally Jesus makes no such claim. I take Jesus literally. It is you who are elaborating and spinning the statements. Your claims are far weaker than mine. I may not know if Jesus was a god. I only know he did not say he was God. I only know he indicated his subordinate relationship to God on numerous occasions. He claimed literally that his God and Mary Magdalene's God were the same God. I am shocked that such obvious verses are so easily dismissed by those who deified Jesus.

No, by your methods, most classic literature and nearly all poetry would equally need to be dismissed.

Thomas

No, I feel that most classic literature and most poetry be regarded as an art form, but not necessarily a formal history backed by references. I grew up with the fabulous Irish myths like Cuchulainn's Tain or quest. I do not think he could literally turn into a great dog. Stories are stories and not necessarily histories. I do not believe Cuchulainn was fathered by the Sun God (Lugh) with a human female virgin named Deichtine.

These fables are older than Christianity and remarkably similar. However, I love them for their poetry and literature but not necessarily as historical facts. Like Jesus, I believe that Cuchulainn did exist and was the Warrior Champion of Ulster King Conchobar Mac Nessa, who is documented by archaeology. Cuchulainn's previously thought of mythical fortress, Eamhain Macha, has recently been unearthed near Armagh. The individual buildings, long buried are identified in the Irish Saga Táin Bó Cualgne, which was written in Ogham script before the time of Christianity.

Can we not view Jesus and Cuchulainn as ancient heroes regardless of how much of their stories are myth or fact?

Happy Thanksgiving Thomas
Peace and tolerance for both of our beliefs on this subject.

Amergin
 
cuchulainn, not heard that one, sounds interestin.

apparently "advanced" beings can contain several personalities, not that i necessarily believe that. what made them what they are? and could that change each time? can you know him, text or otherwise or at least the process. the virgin's were spiritually so, i believe, not physically.

i once the heard the question, "was he born without a formal personality?"....is it someone outside of who he was when he was born or someone he flowered into.

"the cleansing of the eyes was the most painful, like being lain down in the desert, facing the "sun", with ones eyelids held open....", "everything's ok now, i've seen his face, nothing will ever be the same again...."
 
Jesus does not say, "I forgive you." He says, "Your sins are forgiven."
I would say it's the same difference. The crucial point is that in the prophetic tradition, the prophet makes very certain that his audience is aware it is not he, but The Lord (Adonia) who speaks, the Lord who acts, etc.

In the Gospels, the absence of this declaration is telling. Jesus continually draws attention to Himself, what He does, what He says ... not to The Lord. When He speaks of the Father, which itself is interesting, it is usually to draw out the relation between the Father and Himself ... hence the Early Church referred to their vocation as The Way, meaning Jesus' way, or teaching, not the Hebrew Scriptures per se, and they refer to Him as Kurios, Lord.

It is not for man to forgive sin, only God. Man cannot perform miracles, only God. This is why He was often accused of blasphemy. His illiterate audience saw quite clearly what the modern eye fails to see because we're far removed from the Sitz im Leben.

It does not say that the manna was actually God but food sent by God.
I'll admit this introduces an analogous and anagogical dimension which, if we're reading the text purely literally, will be missed. Again I would argue that His audience then, as now, has a greater sensitivity to the meaning of the message than modernity will allow.

That conclusion does not fit the syllogism.
Premise: God fed the desert Jews with food, not his being.
Premise: Jesus said, "Eat this bread in remembrance of me.
Error Conclusion: You are eating me when you eat this.
You've missed a bit and rolled two Eucharistic teachings into one, there's the error of your conclusion.

At the last Supper, Jesus was telling his apostles that he was going to be killed/sacrificed for humankind. His flesh and blood will spill out to the Earth. He told them to remember what he (Jesus) would sacrifice, e.g. his flesh (bread) and blood (wine.) Again, he speaks metaphorically. Jesus would feed humankind by his ministry, death, and resurrection. He would not feed them his muscles, liver, kidneys, heart, or lungs.
You need to study the distinction between flesh (sarx) and body (soma).

The existence of something supra rational or supernatural is an unproven assumption. We must view this empirically taking in the nature of Late Bronze Age Jewish ways of thinking, and communicating.
How can a text which speaks of a Deity — and not the empirical deification of the elements, for example — not infer a profound insight into the human condition and the nature of things.

Are you not, by disallowing elements with which you're not comfortable, setting up the investigation to produce the answer you're looking for?

To me it is obvious that Jews were expressing their beliefs by metaphor and simile. Jesus' use of parables is a good example of his teaching method. We still do that today but with more literalism and logic and try to rationalise Christianity to fit the current beliefs.
That's precisely my point, the history of Christianity, to me, is a history of successive waves of rationalisation — and each wave is one step removed from the core — until today, we end up with the notion of Jesus as everybody's best friend, and Christianity is reduced to ethical humanism with a veneer of 'smells and bells' to give it some order of religious credence, and in the educated west, steeped in empiricism, materialism and consumerism, even that sense has atrophied.

In other words, we see the text as our pastor or priest tells us. Today it is difficult to take the text of the Bible as literally true, because of time and changing language interpretation.
I think there's more to it than that.

The overwhelming philosophy of today is one of relativism, where narrative has displaced truth ... so today people seek to interpret the text to suit their own comfortability and disposition.

I think I am saying that. 2000 years ago, the Jewish people had very limited knowledge of geology, meteorology, the flow of rivers, rain, and growth of animals and plants. The science was absent except in embryonic form in the ancient Greek world. What makes a river flow, a volcano erupt, earthquakes, magma flows in the Jordan Valley Tectonic fault zone? The cause seemed invisible. They called the invisible movers spirits and later combined them into gods and one god.
Agreed, but the God of Abraham was not a god that explained rivers and volcanoes, is it?

It's a far more sophisticated text than that. That notion, whether Yahwist, Elohist, Deuteronomic or Priestly, still serves today.

To make a workable worldview (however imaginary) required the imagination that formed religion.
Indeed. But assuming there is a God, then there is no reason to assume that such a God would not engage in the endeavour.

Why Jews were such skilled users of figures of speech is curious and may have come from faith under the gaze of foreign occupiers.
Not really, I think their linguistic style was more common to the region, rather than specific to them ... where their language becomes specific is in presenting monotheism in a polytheistic world.

Yeshua Ben Pacheria 100 years before Jesus practiced healing, miracles/magic, without claiming to be God. Jews convicted him of sorcery, stoned him to death. Monty Python in "Life of Brian" showed a skit in which any time one mentioned "Jehovah,” the speaker was stoned by the crowd.
And you're assuming that's historically sound, because it's in a Monty python movie?

Problem is that nobody tells you or me how to interpret these strange verses and words. Our interpretations both tend to be opinions of which neither of us can prove or disprove.
Really?

There is an unbroken tradition 2,000 old, back with solid philosophical as well as theological insight. Look at Paul Ricoeur, a Protestant philosopher/theologian who will go down as one of the most remarkable minds of the 20th century ... his works on phenomenological description and hermeneutic interpretation are unsurpassed ... in fact he covers much of the argument you present here.

For my part, it was philosophy that brought me back to Catholicism, not blind faith in my parish priest.

Philosophy is a science not bound by empiricism.

While one cannot interpret the Bible or the Gaelic Foclóir na Síde empirically or literally, I think attempting to subjectively interpret scripture, as do you, is not proven fact.
Actually, as far as I am concerned, mine is not subjective ... I follow in the footsteps of a long tradition.

Curiously, I think the subjective reading is what you're doing. You read ancient texts, and draw your own conclusions about what they might mean.

There is a tradition of sacred literature, and there is a tradition of its interpretation — the same is true everywhere — it is only modernity that assumes it can unlock the secrets of one, with absolutely no recourse to the other.

That's the way it seems to me, anyway ...

God bless,

Thomas
 
We still use simile and metaphor in language. 2000 years ago there was a partition between the natural and the not natural. However, since the supernatural is an unproven assumption, one can be competitive in saying the partition was between the natural and the mythological, or the natural and the imaginary.
I would also say the natural, as we understand it, is an unproven assumption! Or, if you like, that the empirical is all that there is, is definitely an unproven assumption.

I think the borders of the supernatural, the mythological and the inspirational are not closed to each other as we might suppose.

Stoning was not the exclusive penalty for only blasphemy.
Actually stoning was disallowed by the occupiers, so the stoners risked the wrath of the Romans ... but in the case of Jesus, it was for blasphemy.

Your argument is fragile.
No, my argument is based on the text. The text says blasphemy.

I am saying that the saying of Jesus should be spun by figures of speech into claiming to be God, when literally Jesus makes no such claim. I take Jesus literally.
"No man hath seen God at any time: the only begotten Son who is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." John 1:18
Note that the Son declares the Father, not that the Father reveals Himself through the Son.

"Jesus saith to him: I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No man cometh to the Father, but by me." John 14:6

Again, I am, not 'the Father is' ...

Now, no doubt you will say on this occasion Jesus is speaking figuratively ... so really, you choose when to read Him literally, and when to read Him figuratively, according to your own presuppositions of what He must be saying. Much like C.S. Lewis, who argued the same point, that it was all myth, until his friends said, "Yes, but what if ... " and he began to wonder.

This is my point about the 'rationalisation' of religion ... at each step religion is redefined according to the limits of human credibility. We know, without a shadow of a doubt, that the Protestant reformers, Luther, Calvin, Zwingli, ineradically stamped their version of Christianity with their own character.

our claims are far weaker than mine.
No they're not. Yours are your own. Mine have 2,000 years of philosophical and theological development behind them.

Yours, too, have a heritage, but I do think you're presenting a picture for the source of Christianity, and its content, which oversteps the mark with regard to scholarly support; I think you can find support for every element of your argument, but I'm not sure those supports would buy into you over-arching conclusions. I could be wrong, but that's my opinion.

I may not know if Jesus was a god. I only know he did not say he was God.
Based on your evidence, as you choose to interpret it. The fact remains:
He was killed, ostensibly for claiming to be God, although the text is quite clear that his death was also seen as 'pragmatically necessary' by the Sanhedrin.

The point is, however, when accused, He did not deny it.

I only know he indicated his subordinate relationship to God on numerous occasions.
And there is a profound theological investigation and explanation for that, I believe in His claims of subordination, too.

He claimed literally that his God and Mary Magdalene's God were the same God. I am shocked that such obvious verses are so easily dismissed by those who deified Jesus.
They're not. It's just that you choose to ignore the exegesis that does not support your position.

No, I feel that most classic literature and most poetry be regarded as an art form, but not necessarily a formal history backed by references. I grew up with the fabulous Irish myths like Cuchulainn's Tain or quest. I do not think he could literally turn into a great dog. Stories are stories and not necessarily histories. I do not believe Cuchulainn was fathered by the Sun God (Lugh) with a human female virgin named Deichtine.
This is the Bultmann error (not bad company to be in!):
A is a myth;
B reads like A;
Therefore B is a myth.
It's not proven, it's an assumption.

God bless,

Thomas
 
Is God Always Superior to Jesus?

JESUS never claimed to be God. Everything he said about himself indicates that he did not consider himself equal to God in any way—not in power, not in knowledge, not in age.

In every period of his existence, whether in heaven or on earth, his speech and conduct reflect subordination to God. God is always the superior, Jesus the lesser one who was created by God.

Jesus Distinguished From God

TIME and again, Jesus showed that he was a creature separate from God and that he, Jesus, had a God above him, a God whom he worshiped, a God whom he called “Father.” In prayer to God, that is, the Father, Jesus said, “You, the only true God.” (John 17:3) At John 20:17 he said to Mary Magdalene: “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.” (RS, Catholic edition) In 2 Corinthians 1:3 the apostle Paul confirms this relationship: “Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.” Since Jesus had a God, his Father, he could not at the same time be that God.

The apostle Paul had no reservations about speaking of Jesus and God as distinctly separate: “For us there is one God, the Father, . . . and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ.” (1 Corinthians 8:6, JB) The apostle shows the distinction when he mentions “the presence of God and of Christ Jesus and of the elect angels.” (1 Timothy 5:21, RS Common Bible) Just as Paul speaks of Jesus and the angels as being distinct from one another in heaven, so too are Jesus and God.

Jesus’ words at John 8:17, 18 are also significant. He states: “In your own Law it is written, ‘The witness of two men is true.’ I am one that bears witness about myself, and the Father who sent me bears witness about me.” Here Jesus shows that he and the Father, that is, Almighty God, must be two distinct entities, for how else could there truly be two witnesses?

Jesus further showed that he was separate by denying being good? “No one is good but God alone.” (Mark 10:18, JB) So Jesus was distinguishing from God by saying: “Why do you call one is as good as God is, not even Jesus himself”. God is good in a way that separates him from Jesus.

God’s Submissive Servant

TIME and again, Jesus made statements such as: “The Son cannot do anything at his own pleasure, he can only do what he sees his Father doing.” (John 5:19, The Holy Bible, by Monsignor R. A. Knox) “I have come down from heaven to do, not my will, but the will of him that sent me.” (John 6:38) “What I teach is not mine, but belongs to him that sent me.” (John 7:16) Is not the sender superior to the one sent?

This relationship is evident in Jesus’ illustration of the vineyard. He likened God, his Father, to the owner of the vineyard, who travelled abroad and left it in the charge of cultivators, who represented the Jewish clergy. When the owner later sent a slave to get some of the fruit of the vineyard, the cultivators beat the slave and sent him away empty-handed. Then the owner sent a second slave, and later a third, both of whom got the same treatment. Finally, the owner said: “I will send my son [Jesus] the beloved. Likely they will respect this one.” But the corrupt cultivators said: “‘This is the heir; let us kill him, that the inheritance may become ours.’ With that they threw him outside the vineyard and killed him.” (Luke 20:9-16) Thus Jesus illustrated his own position as one being sent by God to do God’s will, just as a father sends a submissive son.

The followers of Jesus always viewed him as a submissive servant of God, not as God’s equal. They prayed to God about “thy holy servant Jesus, whom thou didst anoint, . . . and signs and wonders are performed through the name of thy holy servant Jesus.”—Acts 4:23, 27, 30, RS, Catholic edition.

God Superior at All Times

AT THE very outset of Jesus’ ministry, when he came up out of the baptismal water, God’s voice from heaven said: “This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved.” (Matthew 3:16, 17) Was God saying that he was his own son, that he approved himself, that he sent himself? No, God the Creator was saying that he, as the superior, was approving a lesser one, his Son Jesus, for the work ahead.

Jesus indicated his Father’s superiority when he said: “Jehovah’s spirit is upon me, because he anointed me to declare good news to the poor.” (Luke 4:18) Anointing is the giving of authority or a commission by a superior to someone who does not already have authority. Here God is plainly the superior, for he anointed Jesus, giving him authority that he did not previously have.

Amergin
 
Actually stoning was disallowed by the occupiers, so the stoners risked the wrath of the Romans ... but in the case of Jesus, it was for blasphemy.


No, my argument is based on the text. The text says blasphemy.

Stoning was performed by the Jews in Roman times. There is the story of "he without guilt cast the first stone at a stoning event."

Jesus was tried by Pilate the Roman Governor. Pilate did not prosecute religious crimes. Rome was officially tolerant of hundreds of religions. Pilate only prosecuted political crimes like insurgency, usurping a crown as head of a state/province.

Jesus was not given the penalty for blasphemy because he was not stoned. However, even if he were, that does not prove he claimed to be God. Blasphemy includes more than claiming to be God.

Pilate condemned Jesus to crucifixion, the execution method of the Romans for political crimes, usurpation of a King's crown, insurgency such as the Zealots.

In addition, the Romans crucified Jesus and placed a sign on the cross over his head. It read essentially "Jesus of Nazareth, King of the Jews."

It did not say, "Jesus of Nazareth, the God of Israel."

These factors disprove Jesus was tried and executed for blasphemy.

1. He was tried by the Roman Governor, a politician.
2. He was crucified, a penalty especially for insurrection.
3. The sign said Jesus claimed to be King not God of the Jews.

Amergin
 
Is God Always Superior to Jesus?
The Father is always prior to the Son, although, logically, the one requires the other, and the two (along with the third) are aeternal ... the key point on Trinitarian theology is it discusses not essence or nature, but relation.

JESUS never claimed to be God.
Well I side with the traditions (Latin, Greek ... ) in disagreeing with you. The argument of the evidence is beyond reproach — it is reasoned philosophically, metaphysically and theologically — thus it's not a matter of reason nor logic; one either accepts it or one does not, but one can neither prove nor disprove it.

The range of your argument does you credit, but really all I can do do is respond with citations of counter-arguments of saints and sages over the last two thousand years.

At the heart of Christianity stand two mysteries: the Trinity and the Incarnation. The Incarnation arises out of the mystery of the Trinity, and without Trinity, there is no rational nor indeed supra-rational (that I can allude to or intuit) reason for creation, no foundation for the idea of Divine Union.

If there is a God, and if there is some order of dialogue between creation and its Creator, then that must exist, in principle, within the Godhead, prior to creation. From a metaphysical viewpoint, this is what Trinity addresses, and from a theological viewpoint, this is what the Incarnation reveals.

In the original tradition, one rises by the Spirit, in the Son, to the Father, and this is implicit in Scripture, and some of these texts you refer to above. But this is in the order of relation as stated above, not the order of 'substance' or 'nature' or 'essence', which is present in other parts of the text.

So I would again say you're making a subjective determination, based on selective readings of the text. I make a subjective decision to confess an objective determination, the Deposit of Faith as made known to me by Tradition, which accepts the whole text without the need to place rational limitations upon its potential meaning — rather traditional Christian orthodox theology seeks a rational explanation and meaning of the text without putting limitations upon it.

God bless,

Thomas
 
The Father is always prior to the Son, although, logically, the one requires the other, and the two (along with the third) are aeternal ... the key point on Trinitarian theology is it discusses not essence or nature, but relation.

In saying that "the Father" is always prior to the "Son" is a biological factor in not only human evolution but that or other primates and mammals. In mammals including us, offspring are incapable of survival at birth. They require a nursing mother, and many have the Father serving as protector of his family to ward off predators. The Father is always superior in social rank than babies and children. The Father is often the one who trains the growing sons to hunt, to fight, and to act with the troop in defence. Mothers teach the son what plants to eat and not eat, verbal history of their people, and probably the religious beliefs. A Father's superiority to his Son is the mark of a animal-mammal evolutionary social structure. This is especially true of humans, and baboon troops.

If your God has a Father who is prior to (precedes) the Son, it is a strong suggestion that Jesus was a created being, whether a bipedal primate or a god-son who creates Jesus (Arian Heresy). The theological structure of your god is patterned off of human families. This goes along with giving JHWY a clearly human personality and emotions. When Jesus claims to be subordinate to JHWY the Father, it follows that Jesus was created and not equal to the Father God, JHWY.


Well I side with the traditions (Latin, Greek ... ) in disagreeing with you. The argument of the evidence is beyond reproach — it is reasoned philosophically, metaphysically and theologically — thus it's not a matter of reason nor logic; one either accepts it or one does not, but one can neither prove nor disprove it.
True, but the story's ambiguities and gospel contradiction to Christianity's mythology make your version seem highly unlikely, non-rational, and related to classical Judaism. My version is rational and suggests Christianity is Indo-European Paganism using a few Jewish names.

The range of your argument does you credit, but really all I can do do is respond with citations of counter-arguments of saints and sages over the last two thousand years.
I am an Atheist, and have no bias toward post-400 CE Christianity, Islam, or Monotheistic Judaism. I am only using sources from books supposedly written by the earliest followers. Later opinions by saints, priests, and bishops seem less important and less reliable than those who wrote within a century of Jesus' death. The further one gets in centuries, the farther they get from the beliefs of the evangelists. Therefore, I place little confidence in Augustine, Athanasius, or Aquinas. I would place more confidence in the words of Jesus as recorded by the four gospel writers. My hypothesis fits your gospels.

At the heart of Christianity stand two mysteries: the Trinity and the Incarnation. The Incarnation arises out of the mystery of the Trinity, and without Trinity, there is no rational nor indeed supra-rational (that I can allude to or intuit) reason for creation, no foundation for the idea of Divine Union.
Trinities abound in the world from 4000 BCE, consisting of either Father-Son-Spirit or Father-Son-Earth Mother. Christianity was determined to hold onto the Trinity Religions of its mostly Indo-European converts.

However, they then risked conflict with the absolutely Monotheistic Jews and early Jesus followers (Ebionites, Nazarites, and other cults which I cannot name.) Christianity faced a challenge of not being accused of polytheism with their Trinity, while trying to advertise themselves as Monotheists. So they came up with the chaotic and irrational Trinity of a Monotheistic God. 3=1, 1=3 flies in the face of reason. Do not dismiss reason.

The first form of Christianity was later called heresy, was the teaching of Bishop Arius. He taught a belief that fits much better with the gospels. He said that JHWY was the High God or Father, and Jesus was the created god, a son of the high god. The convolution of Tertulian's Trinity idea was not compatible. The Official Church of Athanasius stuck with the double and contradictory story of a Trinity was really Monotheism, by making a Monotheistic God with three personalities or persons. This lost any chance of converting the strictly monotheistic Jews (and Jesus) but it made conversion of Indo-European polytheists with trinities, easy.

However, that has left the Trinity an enigma, which the Church says is intentional for it to be so. Hmm.

If there is a God, and if there is some order of dialogue between creation and its Creator, then that must exist, in principle, within the Godhead, prior to creation. From a metaphysical viewpoint, this is what Trinity addresses, and from a theological viewpoint, this is what the Incarnation reveals.
This does not make sense to me. Dialogue between Creation and its Creator is meaningless to me. The Incarnation is irrational because a God impregnating a human female is equivalent to me impregnating a jellyfish. Does God have DNA? If God added half of a human DNA genome to Mary, he had to add a Y chromosome (which Mary lacked) to make Jesus a male.

This is a common story among primitive people who lacked any knowledge of genetic factors in gender or the fact that a father must be genetically compatible with a fertile female. Celts, Teutons, Slavs, Illyrians, Greeks, and Italics all had Trinities and Father Gods impregnating human women. The story is incredible and can only be explained by magic (i.e. superstitious mythology.)

In the original tradition, one rises by the Spirit, in the Son, to the Father, and this is implicit in Scripture, and some of these texts you refer to above. But this is in the order of relation as stated above, not the order of 'substance' or 'nature' or 'essence', which is present in other parts of the text.
It is not implicit in my reading of the scripture. How does one separate relation from nature or essence?

So I would again say you're making a subjective determination, based on selective readings of the text.
I read the entire text of the Bible. I had lots of time growing up on a farm during winters. I did not select the verses used in my argument until middle aged adulthood. My ideas did evolved over the first 30 years of my life. What I have posted is the result of much time thinking, postulating hypotheses and trying to counter my own hypotheses. I trust my brain and long periods of thought rather than the general unreliability of tradition, folk tales, or the mere unsupported ideas of theologians.

I make a subjective decision to confess an objective determination, the Deposit of Faith as made known to me by Tradition, which accepts the whole text without the need to place rational limitations upon its potential meaning — rather traditional Christian orthodox theology seeks a rational explanation and meaning of the text without putting limitations upon it.
I place my understanding on analytical thought, reason, and sceptical re-analysis of my ideas. I have to do this as a neuroscientist before publishing a theory. I rely on my colleagues to apply reason and scepticism in criticism of my work. Sometimes they are right and find an error which I then re-evaluate and try to correct. I am a devout rationalist and sceptic. It has served me well. When I have been misled, it is by opinions without rational evidence.

God bless,

Thomas
If your God is real, I ask him to bless you as well. You are a bright chap who challenges me to think. Thanks.

Amergin

“True virtue is life under the direction of reason”- Baruch Spinoza
 
Hi Amergin —

In saying that "the Father" is always prior to the "Son" is a biological factor in not only human evolution but that or other primates and mammals.
Yes, and agreed ... but can we open it up?

It is generally agreed in Christian theology that when we speak of God we are speaking analogically, using metaphors, etc., because the Divine is simply incomprehensible to our nature (having said that, we can for example declare that God is rational, if only because if God is irrational, then there's no point in believing in anything ... )

I am still struggling with the Doctrine of the Trinity ... but let me put this:

God is ... and God knows that God is ... and God responds to what God knows of God's own is-ness.

God is, is Father. And God's knowing of this is Son, so in that way one might say the First Person of the Trinity is what it is, and the Second Person of the Trinity is the knowledge of the First, and the Third Person of the Trinity is the response of the First to the Second, and the Second to the First.

The idea that the Son is the self-knowledge of the Father is actually evidenced in Scripture, and has come about through contemplation of the Scriptures in the Fathers.

Now I am aware that this is an anthropomorphic expression, we assume rationality of God, and self-reflection of God, but then we would be mad to assume we possess qualities, those very qualities we are told separate us from the animals, that God does not possess.

(But again, we're still positing God as the exemplar and perfection of everything we can think of. The Anselmian argument that God 'is that which nothing greater can be thought' is no proof of anything.)

One of the strongest arguments, for me, is the notion that if such things as 'divine union' are possible, then the principle of unity must somehow exist in something which is One, so that the One-ness of God must contain unity within it, and saying that one contains all the other numbers cos you can't get to two without one first, is not actually an argument. God is not one God among man, nor is God one thing, as opposed to another thing, or no-thing.

The one-ness of God is not an ordinal one-ness.

So I am saying the is-ness of God is prior to God's self-knowledge, and yet God being God (and thus perfect), there was not a moment when he did not know Himself, as it were. So God's being precedes the knowledge of His being, but that knowledge is actually co-existent and co-eternal because there was never a 'time' or condition when God was unaware of God.

Another aspect is that of Divine Union.

The way this union is expressed, by Christ, is in the most intimate terms, He talks of this in terms of one-ness, son-ship, parental and nuptial relationships. All these terms are there to signify the intimacy and immediacy of what He is speaking of.

+++

If your God has a Father who is prior to (precedes) the Son, it is a strong suggestion that Jesus was a created being, whether a bipedal primate or a god-son who creates Jesus (Arian Heresy).
As you point out, this analogy can lead to Arian heresy, although Arius was more swayed by Origen's Platonism than the Scriptural image.

The theological structure of your god is patterned off of human families. This goes along with giving JHWY a clearly human personality and emotions. When Jesus claims to be subordinate to JHWY the Father, it follows that Jesus was created and not equal to the Father God, JHWY.
If one looks at it that way. The other is that human families fall into a natural pattern — the pattern was there before humans, as it's there in the animal kingdom (and we are animals) ... but if one allows that the language used is meant to convey the information to the widest possible audience, then certain aspects have to be patterned on something, to render it intelligible to a wide audience.

In the writing of the Fathers, and the development of doctrine, the anthropological aspect (evident in the mythopoeic language of the Hebrew Scriptures) fades away. As critics note, when the Fathers think, they Platonize, and there has long been an observed tension between Christian Revelation and Platonic doctrine (although the influence of Stoicism, etc., should not be overlooked).

As my course tutor said, "The history of Christianity is the Salvation History of the Jews contemplated in the light of the Greek philosophical tradition."


True, but the story's ambiguities and gospel contradiction to Christianity's mythology make your version seem highly unlikely, non-rational, and related to classical Judaism. My version is rational and suggests Christianity is Indo-European Paganism using a few Jewish names.
Really? I think you're ploughing a lonely road there. I am unaware of any heavyweight Scripture scholar who would support that contention.


I am only using sources from books supposedly written by the earliest followers. Later opinions by saints, priests, and bishops seem less important and less reliable than those who wrote within a century of Jesus' death.
Really? How do you judge their veracity? There's load of spurious stuff out there, claiming this and claiming that. All of it's interesting from an historical perspective, but claiming its authentic is something else altogether.


The further one gets in centuries, the farther they get from the beliefs of the evangelists. Therefore, I place little confidence in Augustine, Athanasius, or Aquinas. I would place more confidence in the words of Jesus as recorded by the four gospel writers. My hypothesis fits your gospels.
Well my theology fits the Gospels, and so does Augustine, Athanasius and Aquinas, and if you can show their their theology doesn't, then your reputation would be made ... but I don't think you can.

I think you're on your own. I fail to see how the Gospels evidence the fact that a highly informed Jew (the Scriptural references in His words and actions are numerous and touch every aspect of the testimony), preaching to a largely Jewish audience, who were demonstrably touchy about infringements on their religious beliefs (as the Romans learnt, and were obliged to make pragmatic allowances), bought into a pagan philosophy wholesale ... I don't see that at all.


Trinities abound in the world from 4000 BCE, consisting of either Father-Son-Spirit or Father-Son-Earth Mother. Christianity was determined to hold onto the Trinity Religions of its mostly Indo-European converts.
As I keep saying, triunes are widespread and universal, as are monads, dualisms, quaternities ... one, two, three, etc., are all sacred numbers in all traditions ... but it's what the doctrine says that counts, and the Doctrine of the Trinity is founded in Hebraic thought, not IndoEuropean.


However, they then risked conflict with the absolutely Monotheistic Jews and early Jesus followers (Ebionites, Nazarites, and other cults which I cannot name.)
Who are 'they'?

So they came up with the chaotic and irrational Trinity of a Monotheistic God. 3=1, 1=3 flies in the face of reason. Do not dismiss reason.
Amergin, this isn't reason, this is opinion. There is 2,000 years of reasoned philosophical and metaphysical contemplation of the Trinity. That you find it chaotic and irrational only means you don't understand it, and the way you insist on looking at it, I can see why.

The first form of Christianity was later called heresy, was the teaching of Bishop Arius.
You see, it's with comments like this that you torpedo your own argument.

Arianism was not the first form of Christianity, nor was it the first heresy. Arianism was Arius' idea, and it was soundly rejected by the congregation he was preaching to, a congregation of fishermen, sailers, dockers, etc (his parish was the docks in Alexandria, and his forté was composing worksongs on theological themes) — it was the congregation who complained to the Bishop of Alexandria that Arius was singing off his own songsheet, as it were, in saying that Christ was created, that 'there was a time when He was not'.

He taught a belief that fits much better with the gospels. He said that JHWY was the High God or Father, and Jesus was the created god, a son of the high god.
No, it fits with you ... and you fit it to the gospels.

The convolution of Tertulian's Trinity idea was not compatible.
It was not Tertullian's Trinity — the doctrine was in place before Tertullian. He came up with the term Trinity, that's all.

The Official Church of Athanasius stuck with the double and contradictory story of a Trinity ...
It seems to me you've concocted a theory to explain away a theory that you don't understand.


This does not make sense to me. Dialogue between Creation and its Creator is meaningless to me.
To you ... please do not assume the same of everybody.

The Incarnation is irrational
Quantum Physics is irrational. So what? Are you saying there is nothing in the Cosmos, or beyond it, that will not reveal itself to your gaze?

It is not implicit in my reading of the scripture. How does one separate relation from nature or essence?
Then reread John Chapters 14-16 ... it's there.

I read the entire text of the Bible. I had lots of time growing up on a farm during winters. I did not select the verses used in my argument until middle aged adulthood. My ideas did evolved over the first 30 years of my life. What I have posted is the result of much time thinking, postulating hypotheses and trying to counter my own hypotheses. I trust my brain and long periods of thought rather than the general unreliability of tradition, folk tales, or the mere unsupported ideas of theologians.
Oh dear ... you mean you've ignored 'the winnowed wisdom of the human race', to use a term coined by Prof. Huston Smith, and stuck with what you've come up with in isolation.

I'd keep that to yourself ... that argument, combined with the manifest errors you put to me above, do not stand your theory in good stead.

I place my understanding on analytical thought, reason, and sceptical re-analysis of my ideas. I have to do this as a neuroscientist before publishing a theory. I rely on my colleagues to apply reason and scepticism in criticism of my work. Sometimes they are right and find an error which I then re-evaluate and try to correct. I am a devout rationalist and sceptic. It has served me well. When I have been misled, it is by opinions without rational evidence.
And it never occurred to you that many theologians are trained philosophers, rationalists and sceptics?

Your bias:
An atheist is rational, logical, reasonable, because of what he believes;
a theologian is irrational, illogical, unreasonable, etc., because of what he believes (which is other than what you believe).

I, for example, a believer and Catholic, happen to think many atheists are rational, reasonable people, I do not assume, as you do, that they're 'away with the faeries' and hold beliefs that are patently nonsense because they don't think like me.

That's not good methodology in anyone's book.

God bless,

Thomas
 
Hi Amergin —


Yes, and agreed ... but can we open it up?

It is generally agreed in Christian theology that when we speak of God we are speaking analogically, using metaphors, etc., because the Divine is simply incomprehensible to our nature (having said that, we can for example declare that God is rational, if only because if God is irrational, then there's no point in believing in anything ... )
Cheers Thomas

I am quite familiar with that, being raised a Catholic as well. I heard the familiar answer to any mystery, "we are mere humans and incapable of understanding the divine." That was supposed to end the discussion. It only made me read and study more. It is like telling a 4th grade lad, "plan to go to an occupational school to learn carpentry. Do not try to understand Algebra, Calculus, Differential Equations, Siegel Modular Forms, and Galois Cohomology. You are incapable of understanding advanced math. So don't bother trying. Go over to Shop Class.

I do not assume that the evolving human brain is incapable of understanding things beyond our experience or contrary to tradition (legend.)

I am still struggling with the Doctrine of the Trinity ... but let me put this:

God is ... and God knows that God is ... and God responds to what God knows of God's own is-ness.
I am ...and I know that I am...and I respond to what I know of my own is-ness. I suspect that even a slug or nematode knows this on its own level.

God is, is Father. And God's knowing of this is Son, so in that way one might say the First Person of the Trinity is what it is, and the Second Person of the Trinity is the knowledge of the First, and the Third Person of the Trinity is the response of the First to the Second, and the Second to the First.
That has a very poetic sounding comment, but it does not explain why such an odd entity exists. What caused it to exist? Why does it exist if we can explain the universe, galaxies with black holes, a million million solar systems, and one rather unimpressive star with a rocky water planet, life forming by chemical processes of natural selection...without the need to postulate a God.

The hypothesis of a conscious god does not really explain the universe any better than theoretical physics such as quantum mechanics. Neither can be clearly understood nor demonstrated. Consciousness is an animal characteristic in which a brain of some sort responds to its environment in ways to survive. Evolution explains how this consciousness evolving to greater complexity by natural selection acquiring the quality of cognition, communication, motor skills, relationships, memory, and emotions. All of these qualities were survival traits naturally selected for greater survival.

Consciousness and Cognition seem unnecessary to a creative entity. It does not change.

Consciousness has three main functions
1. Finding food to sustain its existence.
2. Finding a reproductive mate to insure offspring.
3. Evading predators. (are there cosmic Theophages?:eek:

The idea that the Son is the self-knowledge of the Father is actually evidenced in Scripture, and has come about through contemplation of the Scriptures in the Fathers.
I cannot find this in the scripture, sorry Mate. In the O.T. God seems to be entirely unitary. The Gospels very clearly demonstrate a High God (Father or JHWY) and a subordinate son (Jesus) who has less knowledge than the High God, who talks TO God, who admits he knows less than God, who carries a message from God to us with him (Jesus) as the mere messenger, who says he does God's work (not his own.) Paul refers to the Father as God, and to Jesus as "Lord" who sits on God's right. Jesus is depicted as a "Lord" or "Vassal" to the King or Emperor God. This is seen clearly in the Gospels.

Now I am aware that this is an anthropomorphic expression, we assume rationality of God, and self-reflection of God, but then we would be mad to assume we possess qualities, those very qualities we are told separate us from the animals, that God does not possess.
Our qualities do not separate us from OTHER animals. All vertebrates have consciousness, cognition at some level, self awareness demonstrated by avoidance of noxious stimuli, hunger, and desire to reproduce. Some claim that speech separates us. As a neuroscientist, I dispute that example of human arrogance. Chimps not only understand and follow Human verbal instructions very well. Some in America have been trained to communicate and express its thought in Sign Language. They have shown concept connection. Washoe was taught about birds, dogs, trees, air, water, and ice. She was not taught about a duck. A duck walked by the Primate Centre at Central Washington University. Washoe using sign language called it a "water bird." She had never seen ducks in water. Humans are merely the smartest and best concept communicators but it is not an exclusively human property.


One of the strongest arguments, for me, is the notion that if such things as 'divine union' are possible, then the principle of unity must somehow exist in something which is One, so that the One-ness of God must contain unity within it, and saying that one contains all the other numbers cos you can't get to two without one first, is not actually an argument. God is not one God among man, nor is God one thing, as opposed to another thing, or no-thing.
Oi, you lost me a bit on that discussion.

The one-ness of God is not an ordinal one-ness.

So I am saying the is-ness of God is prior to God's self-knowledge, and yet God being God (and thus perfect), there was not a moment when he did not know Himself, as it were. So God's being precedes the knowledge of His being, but that knowledge is actually co-existent and co-eternal because there was never a 'time' or condition when God was unaware of God.

Another aspect is that of Divine Union.
Sorry Mate. I simply do not understand your point. I don't deny it. I just do not know what you are saying.

+++


As you point out, this analogy can lead to Arian heresy, although Arius was more swayed by Origen's Platonism than the Scriptural image.
Platonism did influence the evolution of Christianity. I do not necessarily argue with this. However, it is the four gospels which prove that point. I have posted the many verses in which Jesus talks "to God." I have posted many in which Jesus says he is doing "God's work." Jesus is not good but only God is good. Jesus does not know, only God knows. Jesus and Mary Magdalene have the same God. I do not believe in Arianism or Nestorianism but the gospels are more compatible with those sects than Athanasian trinitarianism (Constantine's Christianity.) The gospels simply conflict with traditional Roman Christianity of Constantine and Athanasius, and their trinity.


If one looks at it that way. The other is that human families fall into a natural pattern — the pattern was there before humans, as it's there in the animal kingdom (and we are animals) ... but if one allows that the language used is meant to convey the information to the widest possible audience, then certain aspects have to be patterned on something, to render it intelligible to a wide audience.
I see your analogy but I say that the sequence is backwards. Human/animal families were the human brain's template for the Trinity God. Likewise, in the O.T. human tribal chiefs/war lords/shamans formed the basic template of the O.T. God. They made him powerful, violent, vindictive, demanding worship, jealous, homicidal, oppressive of human ideas and expression, capricious, holding tribal grudges for generations. That God has all of the common and worst qualities of warlords like Sargon, Moses, Joshua, Saul, and David.

The new religion called Christianity tried to reform JHWY's lethal behaviour into something kinder and nicer. There was no love of JHWY in the O.T. but dreadful fear. Christianity at least in part, deified Jesus to create a kinder, nicer God.

In the writing of the Fathers, and the development of doctrine, the anthropological aspect (evident in the mythopoeic language of the Hebrew Scriptures) fades away. As critics note, when the Fathers think, they Platonize, and there has long been an observed tension between Christian Revelation and Platonic doctrine (although the influence of Stoicism, etc., should not be overlooked).
I suppose.

As my course tutor said, "The history of Christianity is the Salvation History of the Jews contemplated in the light of the Greek philosophical tradition."
That necessitated the creation of a new god from Paganism, weaving into it dwindling concepts from Judaism.

Really? I think you're ploughing a lonely road there. I am unaware of any heavyweight Scripture scholar who would support that contention.
Being a minority does not necessarily make me wrong. Being a vast majority does not make you right. In 1933 a majority of Germans approved of Hitler and cheered his campaign against the Jews, Gypsies, Atheists, and homosexuals, in addition to political opponents.

Alfred Wegener in 1912 was perhaps the only person in the world who knew the continents had drifted apart while the Geological establishment called him crazy. He observed the obvious fit of the east costs of North and South America to the west coasts of Europe and Africa.

Charles Darwin and a man named Wallace separately put observations through reason and analytical thinking to discover the later proven fact of evolution, before the finding and classification of most fossils, isotope dating of those fossils, integration of effects of plate tectonics and previous continental fusion and fission. Human embryology actually is a microvideo of evolution. A human begins as a single cell, goes through multicellular series of animals from a worm like creature with gill slits and a tail with only a primitive neural tube and not yet formed brain. You know the rest, we grew a ganglion at the front end of the neural tubule eventually a brain. We are primitive agnathious fish to salamander, to reptile, to mammal (and the advanced mammal, us.)

I have been able to section human embryoes showing how our brains grew from the ganglion to fish brain, to amphibian brain, to reptile brain, to early mammal brain, to advanced mammal brain. This occurs by not eliminating any brain parts but by adding successive layers of greater complexity. To me it is another proof of evolution. In Europe, I am in the majority. In America I would be a minority.



Really? How do you judge their veracity? There's load of spurious stuff out there, claiming this and claiming that. All of it's interesting from an historical perspective, but claiming its authentic is something else altogether.

I do not think a heavyweight Scriptural Scholar has verifiable knowledge. There are Christian heavyweight Scripture Scholars as knowledgeable as those of Islam, Judaism, Zoroastrianism, Hinduism, or Buddhism.

They cannot all be 100% right. Some may be partially right about something but none are the right belief. In many ways, Islam is more plausible than Christianity. It maintains the Judaic Monotheism and does not incorporate Indo-European concepts like Trinities or the many literal contradictions of the Christian New Testament. My bias is toward Buddhism not necessarily believing in all of it.

Amergin
 
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