Etymology of the name Jesus

M

mojobadshah

Guest
Wikipedia states that the name "Jesus" developed from 1 of three Hebrew forms. My question is is there an etymology for the name "Jesus" that is generally accepted or would it be safe to say that there is no clear origin of the name? So unclear that it's possible that it may have even been a loan to Hebrew from another language group entirely?
 
..would it be safe to say that there is no clear origin of the name?
There are good reasons to think he is named after Oshea. This is the Oshea that was Moses' lieutenant and aid who became the leader in Moses' place, whom Moses renamed to Joshua. Whether you believe in Jesus or not there is close to 0% chance that his name has outside origins.
 
I did a brief investigation into your etymology and came across a site that implies that the root Yeh/Jeh + Oshea form Yehoshua/Jehoshua which developed into Joshua but as far as Jesus it appears to imply that Jesus formed from the root Yeh/Jeh and sha(h)... so what are these good reasons the word "Jesus" came from the word "Oshea"?

Also why would there be close to 0% chance that Jesus's name doesn't have outside origins? No doubt there is evidence of loans from other languages in Hebrew...
 
Here are a few reasons:
1. Jesus is probably named after Joshua because in Christianity Jesus is supposed to be the prophet that comes to follow up after Moses. (I realize that in Islam it is not Jesus but Muhammad[P]). The original Joshua character partially carried out Moses duties. Jesus is figured as doing the same thing only more-so, so the name fits because of that. There is an account in which Jesus meets with Moses and Elijah on a mountain, meaning that both original Joshua and Jesus were working based on work that Moses had begun.

2. The account in Matthew 1 of why Mary's baby is named Jesus is that he would save his people. That is where the Oshea (or the Esu) comes from. Hebrew Oshea means 'Preserve' and is the same thing as 'Save', but in addition the account also says Jesus is Emmanuel which it says means 'God with us'. That is why he is not called just Oshea but J'Oshea. Its probably where the J for 'Jehova' comes from in his name. J for Jehovah and Oshea for Preserve -- the contraction makes J'Oshea, which through long lingual processes has become recognized as Jesus in the English we are using right now. Moses personally changed the original Oshea's name to J'oshua, so it is significant that Matthew 1 cites passages to explain both parts of Jesus name -- the same parts as the original Joshua of the Canaan conquest.

3. Fulfillment. Jesus is supposed to fulfill the promise to bring Israel into realization of the promises to Abraham, an important aspect of Christianity. It is argued in Hebrews 4, for instance, that the original Joshua did not really 'Give rest' to the people of God but that Jesus will in the future and in a sense has already, sort of, uh.(its a theological debate) The main thing is that Original Joshua is a central figure against whom Jesus is compared.

Jesus is in type like Joshua, in naming like Joshua, and he is in purpose supposed to be a larger version of Joshua. Jesus is compared to Joshua in multiple ways, so that there is really no reason to look for another origin for Jesus name.

Respectfully yours,
Dream
 
There are good reasons to think he is named after Oshea. This is the Oshea that was Moses' lieutenant and aid who became the leader in Moses' place, whom Moses renamed to Joshua. Whether you believe in Jesus or not there is close to 0% chance that his name has outside origins.
Moses couldn't have changed that name could he? As the 'J' didn't exist yet?

Yeshua Hebrew
Iesous Greek
Jesus Latin
Joshua English

I found this and thought it interesting....I guess this would be how they sound?? But we call him Jesus in English, not Joshua and Joshua as a name is elsewhere so confusion for me ensues.
 
The name was pronounced either Yehowshua "THE LORD saves" (from which the English form "Joshua" derives) or for short (and to avoid The Name even in altered form) Yeshua "he saves"; the short form was displacing the long form even by the time of the return from Babylon, when the high priest who dedicated Zerubabbel's Second Temple is generally Yeshua, only rarely called by the long form. The short form was an exceedingly popular name (if not quite to the popularity of Yehudah "Judah"/"Jude" or Ya'akov "Jacob"/"James") by Herodian times; Josephus has a number of characters bearing that name, mostly with no relation to "our" Jesus.
 
Thanks Bob!

I am frequently glad Bob is a skilled scholar. It was really a Y that Moses added and not a J. The passage where Moses changes Oshea to Yehowshua is Numbers 13:16. He is originally Oshea of Ephraim, son of Nun. Oshea corresponds to the part of Jesus name that means salvation, and the Y corresponds to the J in Jesus, which results from the 'God with us' of Matthew 1.
 
The name was pronounced either Yehowshua "THE LORD saves" (from which the English form "Joshua" derives) or for short (and to avoid The Name even in altered form) Yeshua "he saves"; the short form was displacing the long form even by the time of the return from Babylon, when the high priest who dedicated Zerubabbel's Second Temple is generally Yeshua, only rarely called by the long form. The short form was an exceedingly popular name (if not quite to the popularity of Yehudah "Judah"/"Jude" or Ya'akov "Jacob"/"James") by Herodian times; Josephus has a number of characters bearing that name, mostly with no relation to "our" Jesus.

The reason I'm questioning the strength of the this Yaweh + Oshea > Yeshua etymology is because I'm curious as to what people think the likelihood that the name Yeshua has some relation to the Zoroastrian or Avestan form yaz "sacrifice; venerate" which is the root of the word Yasna. For anyone who is not familiar with Zoroastrianism the Yasna is the oldest portion of the Zoroastrian literature said to have been composed by Zoroaster himself and it contains some of his key principles including his sotiorology which entails concepts like immortality of the soul depending on ones good and bad deeds, and a heaven and a hell. Everyone knows that the ancient Persians were Zoroastrians and that were responsible for having liberated the Jews from their Babylonian captivity. It was during their time under Persian tutelage that they adopted elements of the Zoroastrian ideology. This was also the period that the Persians assisted the Jews in their building of the Second Temple when the name Yeshua came into use which if I'm not mistaken resembles another form of the Avestan root yaz which is yasa "praise to." Furthermore one of the chief architects of the Second Temple was known as Zorobabel whose name kind of resembles the name Zoroaster. Zorobabel is also associated with a high priest named Joshua. And then there is the fact that Zorobabel was a Pharisee and the semantic and phonological resemblance between the word Pharisee "separatist" and Parsi/Farsi/Persian which probably originally meant something like "border people" according to my sources. And finally according to the genealogy of Jesus he descended from Zorobabel. According to the Syraic Infancy Gospel it was Zoroaster who foretold the arrival of Jesus to the Magi or Wisemen, and the Syriac writer, Solomon of Hilat (1250 AD) goes one step further and even states that Jesus would be descended of his seed! So what began as Zoroaster's Yasa or praises to God, his word, resulted in Jesus, his word made flesh.
 
I think its very cool what you are saying about the similarities between the names. Etymology is one of those areas in which its often impossible to get satisfaction and temptingly easy to overstep your evidence. An example from History is one famous individual, Jacob Bryant, who was an excellent etymologist but placed too much certainty into his system and got himself completely discredited. His is an interesting and sad story, even though his research into the etymologies of various gods was quite interesting and educational. Using a very systematic approach he used etymology to conclude that the famous Greek city of Troy had never existed, however the ruins of Troy were discovered by archeologists in 1871 sometime after Bryant's death. Essentially the etymology is interesting but not enough to conclude anything or to disprove. The Oshea theory rests on the basis of Matthew 1. To consider the two theories equally you have to first assume that Matthew invented the reasons for Jesus name, but etymology will not conclude that for you unfortunately. Another thing I wonder is if the Jewish language had an impact on the Zorastrians? Could they have borrowed terms for salvation and praise from the Jews? If not, could there have been a previous contact between the two cultural groups? The Zorastrians you said were convinced that the temple should be rebuilt? That sounds like the Jews had some cultural impact.
 
Well I'm not hellbent on the idea, but I am throwing it out there for further investigation, and I'm glad that there are people out there that can appreciate another way to look at things.

Another thing I wonder is if the Jewish language had an impact on the Zorastrians?

From what I know the Avestan language is pretty much free of loans whereas Sanskrit the ancient language of the Hindus shows more evidence of being affected by outside influences like Dravidic.

Could they have borrowed terms for salvation and praise from the Jews?

I don't know, but it would appear that the Hebrew forms were only used as proper names whereas the Zoroastrian forms seem to have been a bit more prolific eg. yasa "praise to" yazata "worthy of praise; God; angel" Yazdi "a place-name in Iran" Yazdigird "a Zoroastrian name" Yasna "primary liturgical collection of texts of the Zoroastrians as well as the name of the principal Zoroastrian act of worship at which those verses are recited." Also it may be worth noting that Persian word for "celebration" Jashan is related to the word Yasna.
 
The high priest in Zerubabbel's day has a name spelled both Yehowshua ("Joshua" identical to Moses' successor) and Yeshua ("Jesus") but more often the latter; at that time the long form meaning "THE LORD saves" and the short form meaning "he saves" were treated as interchangeable, with the short form becoming more popular. The derivation within Hebrew is quite straightforward, and trying to connect to a root yaz is, I'm sorry, simply absurd. The "z" and "sh" phonemes are not interchangeable: would you think that the name "Zeus" is plausibly derived from the English word "shoes" or vice versa?

Zerubabbel is indeed a somewhat puzzling name, but the second half is simply the Hebrew pronunciation of "Babylon"; he was of course born decades before the Persian capture of Babylon, so a Persian connection to the first half of his name seems unlikely, but not as impossible as your other suggestion.
 
The "z" and "sh" phonemes are not interchangeable: would you think that the name "Zeus" is plausibly derived from the English word "shoes" or vice versa?

You might be right, but then how would you explain Yaz > Yasna > Jashan?

Zerubabbel is indeed a somewhat puzzling name, but the second half is simply the Hebrew pronunciation of "Babylon"; he was of course born decades before the Persian capture of Babylon, so a Persian connection to the first half of his name seems unlikely, but not as impossible as your other suggestion.

He may have been born decades before the Persian capture of Babylon, but was his name always Zerubabbel? Because wikipedia seems to imply that there is a discrepancy and that he may have also been known as Sheshbazzar.
 
You might be right, but then how would you explain Yaz > Yasna > Jashan?
These are internal changes within Persian, which at no time had all of those sounds at once. When a language has both "z" and "sh" as separate phonemes, they are not going to be confused with each other. For example, in Hawai'ian the sound that is "t" in the rest of Polynesian becomes "k": the name "Tahiti" is Polynesian for "far away" but Hawai'ian for "far away" is "kahiki". But this could only happen because Hawai'ian had lost the original "k" sound: Polynesian for "holy place" is "hawaiki" but in Hawai'ian that became "Hawai'i". In a language where both "t" and "k" exist, they would not be confused.
He may have been born decades before the Persian capture of Babylon, but was his name always Zerubabbel? Because wikipedia seems to imply that there is a discrepancy and that he may have also been known as Sheshbazzar.
Sheshbazzar is somebody else entirely, one of the sons of Jehoiachin the Captive, one of the last kings of Judah who was imprisoned by Nebuchadrezzar but released decades later by his more sympathetic son Avel-Marduk (see the last chapter of 2nd Kings). Apparently after Nabu-Na'id the Usurper took over (he murdered Avel-Marduk, a younger son of Nebby's named Labashi-Marduk, and Nebby's son-in-law Nergal-Shareser to seize the throne, and then was effectively banished from the city while his more popular son Bel-shareser ruled in his place), he castrated Jehoiachin and all his sons (as Isaiah had prophesied). We know that Sheshbazzar was a eunuch because he had the official appointment as governor of Judea, and the Persians did not employ intact males for such jobs, fearing any attempt to establish independent kings (the later governor Nehemiah, for example, had previously been "cupbearer to the queen"; only eunuchs were allowed contact with the king's women).

Zerubabbel, however, was certainly not a eunuch, rather a prolific father of several; and as the Persians feared, there were efforts (see Haggai and Zechariah) to proclaim him as "king" (nothing came of this, and it seems likely that some politically pragmatic people assassinated him to avoid the dangerous repurcussions). His relationship is contested: Chronicles describes him as the son of Pedaiah, eldest son of Jehoiachin; but Haggai, Zechariah, Matthew, and Luke describe him as the son of Shealtiel (an important "scribe" who helped recopy and transmit the old books). Shealtiel is described in Chronicles as another son of Jehoiachin, as Matthew agrees, but Luke traces him through a list of obscure names to Nathan, an elder full-brother of Solomon (as Chronicles confirms) who was bypassed for the throne because, legally, as the first surviving son of Bathsheba he was the heir to Urijah the Hittite, although it was remembered that the Nathanites were biologically Davidites (Zechariah has an obscure remark about it). I think Luke has this right: my explanation is that after the castration of the Judean royals, Jehoiachin adopted Shealtiel the Nathanite as his "son" and heir, and his biological son Pedaiah adopted Zerubabbel son of Shealtiel as well.
 
All I'm saying is that the Iranic variations of the Proto-Indo-European root *iag eg. Avestan yaz appear to be many and I wouldn't be surprised if it was borrowed by Hebrew speakers via the Persians while in Babylon and eventually developed into the name Yeshua. Another Avestan form I forgot to mention was Yasht "a Zoroastrian hymn that invokes a certain divinity or concept."
 
The reason I'm questioning the strength of the this Yaweh + Oshea > Yeshua etymology is because I'm curious as to what people think the likelihood that the name Yeshua has some relation to the Zoroastrian or Avestan form yaz "sacrifice; venerate" which is the root of the word Yasna. For anyone who is not familiar with Zoroastrianism the Yasna is the oldest portion of the Zoroastrian literature said to have been composed by Zoroaster himself and it contains some of his key principles including his sotiorology which entails concepts like immortality of the soul depending on ones good and bad deeds, and a heaven and a hell. Everyone knows that the ancient Persians were Zoroastrians and that were responsible for having liberated the Jews from their Babylonian captivity. It was during their time under Persian tutelage that they adopted elements of the Zoroastrian ideology. This was also the period that the Persians assisted the Jews in their building of the Second Temple when the name Yeshua came into use which if I'm not mistaken resembles another form of the Avestan root yaz which is yasa "praise to." Furthermore one of the chief architects of the Second Temple was known as Zorobabel whose name kind of resembles the name Zoroaster. Zorobabel is also associated with a high priest named Joshua. And then there is the fact that Zorobabel was a Pharisee and the semantic and phonological resemblance between the word Pharisee "separatist" and Parsi/Farsi/Persian which probably originally meant something like "border people" according to my sources. And finally according to the genealogy of Jesus he descended from Zorobabel. According to the Syraic Infancy Gospel it was Zoroaster who foretold the arrival of Jesus to the Magi or Wisemen, and the Syriac writer, Solomon of Hilat (1250 AD) goes one step further and even states that Jesus would be descended of his seed! So what began as Zoroaster's Yasa or praises to God, his word, resulted in Jesus, his word made flesh.

That is a very interesting post. I am certainly no expert on this subject. I have read the Massey lectures that report a Yeshua ben Pacheria who lived a century and a half earlier than Jesus (Latin, sorry). In the Talmud, Yeshua was suggested to be the same name as the one incorporated in the structurally Pagan Christian religion. He was a son of Mary Magdalene, who studied sorcery in Egypt. This was in the reign of the Hasmonean Kings of the last independent Israel. This Yeshua was a miracle worker, healers, and seer who was tried for sorcery and stoned to death. Then his body was hung on a tree as a display to frighten future infidels.

As to the Jesus of Christianity, the data is more jumbled and syncretised from Pagan religions. We have no Roman records of a Yeshua, Joshua, or such being crucified during the assignment of Pontius Pilate to Palestine. I find this very strange. Romans were obsessive bureaucrats recording all political executions.

According to the gospels written some 70 years after the supposed death of Jesus, he was executed for the political crime of claiming to be King or pretender King of the Jews. Pilate would not have killed Jesus for claiming to be God or a Messiah. The sign put on the cross according to the Gospels written 70 years later, read "Jesus of Nazareth, King of the Jews." The Gospels describe a political execution. Romans executed rebels, royal claimants, civil war leaders in the many civil wars, and leaders of foreign nations conquered by Rome.

Jews executed blasphemers by stoning. However, they left no record of such a blasphemy execution of stoning Jesus. However, the Romans did not bother to record the execution of a Jewish claimant to the Hasmonean Israeli Throne. That is of major importance. Rome publicised the execution of all rebel generals, local uprisings by would be kings, Pompeii, and defeated Gallic King Vercingetorix. Other rebels against Rome committed suicide knowing what they faced: Zenobia, Boudicca, Marcus Antonius, Cleopatra, and others. Word of the lethal risk of opposing the Emperor was spread. If there had been a Jesus as in the Gospels, Rome would have more likely dragged him through Rome and executed there.

The Gospels do not make sense when viewed in the environment of Classical Roman politics. The Romans or the Jews did not notice Jesus. He seems to have appeared in Roman writings long after the supposed death of Jesus. Paul never met him. The Gospel writers could not have been more than newborn babies in 39 CE.

My own hypothesis is that Jesus was not a true historical person as described. He may have been an aggregation of Yeshua ben Pacheria, Honori ben Dosa, Simon Bar Kochba, John the Baptist, Apollonius of Tiana, and possibly Mithras. I think the influence of Zoroastrianism is important. I bow to your knowledge on that.

Did the Zoroastrian Tradition not have Mithras, son of Ahura Mazda (Ormuzd) and Sun God? One version was Mithras was born of a rock. Another mainly in the Roman Empire was that Mithras was born of a human virgin in a cave (i.e. like a stable?) Three magi (Zoroastrian priests) visited the son of the God. The Eucharistic meal used a solar disc of bread looking like the Christian "Holy Communion Host." Mithraists used baptism. They created the concept of saving grace, personal immortality/soul, an evil god called Angra Maingu (equivalent of Satan), and a Holy Spirit called Spenta Maingu. None of this came from the Jews.

I do not claim to be expert on this issue. I read about it from several books. I am interested in your view since you are more knowledgeable than I am.

Amergin
 
My own hypothesis is that Jesus was not a true historical person as described. He may have been an aggregation of Yeshua ben Pacheria, Honori ben Dosa, Simon Bar Kochba, John the Baptist, Apollonius of Tiana, and possibly Mithras. I think the influence of Zoroastrianism is important. I bow to your knowledge on that.

I'm also under the impression that Jesus was not a true historical person, that he may have been a paradigm for Zoroaster's Yasna (eg. his soteriology) that a variation on the Avestan root yaz "to praise" could have developed into his name, and that there are many parallels between Zoroastrian tradition and Zoroaster's life to the Judaic tradition and Jesus' life.

Did the Zoroastrian Tradition not have Mithras, son of Ahura Mazda (Ormuzd) and Sun God? One version was Mithras was born of a rock. Another mainly in the Roman Empire was that Mithras was born of a human virgin in a cave (i.e. like a stable?) Three magi (Zoroastrian priests) visited the son of the God. The Eucharistic meal used a solar disc of bread looking like the Christian "Holy Communion Host." Mithraists used baptism. They created the concept of saving grace, personal immortality/soul, an evil god called Angra Maingu (equivalent of Satan), and a Holy Spirit called Spenta Maingu. None of this came from the Jews.

As far as Mithras I think that it would be great if there was a book just about the parallels between Mithras and Christianity if there isn't one already because I'm aware of all this but I know there is a lot more to it.
 
That is a very interesting post. I am certainly no expert on this subject. I have read the Massey lectures that report a Yeshua ben Pacheria who lived a century and a half earlier than Jesus (Latin, sorry).
It was a common name. Yeshua ben Pacheria lived in Ashdod, and is as unrelated to "our" Jesus as any of the other few-dozen Yeshuas we know of.
We have no Roman records of a Yeshua, Joshua, or such being crucified during the assignment of Pontius Pilate to Palestine.
Tacitus and Suetonius are quite straightforward that Jesus was crucified by Pontius Pilate.
I find this very strange. Romans were obsessive bureaucrats recording all political executions.
You have an utterly unrealistic notion of what we have surviving from Roman bureaucratic records. The Dignitatem ("military ranks") is helpful, for example, listing all the legions and major sub-units: but we only have one copy, apparently assembled from two different documents, one listing the western units as of some time a little before 400, the other listing the eastern units from about a century later. We have several copies of the Acta Augustana, written late in his life listing what Augustus considered the major accomplishments of his life, because it was carved in stone at several locations. From Spain we have several city charters, indicating the standardized structure of local government, because for a while it was a habit to incise these onto brass plates. Once, we get minutes of a Senate meeting, on the occasion of the adoption of the Theodosian Code (the first attempt since the Twelve Tablets of the mid-Republic to assemble, reform, and systematize all of Roman law on every topic; later superseded by Justinian's Code), but all the Senators did was stand and chant in unison (they must have had a script beforehand), things like "All praise to the divine wisdom of our august emperor who has enacted such wholesome laws!" repeated a few dozen times; this was a special case (we only have the minutes because some copyist put them as a preface to a copy of the Code) and it was probably not always so "North Korean" (even late we sometimes hear of the Senate denouncing the emperor and declaring him deposed, as when the Goths marched on Rome in 410). Otherwise we get scattered fragments, and your notion that we have such a thing as a list of every execution that was ordered (do you also imagine that we have minutes of every trial?) is light-years from the truth.
However, the Romans did not bother to record the execution of a Jewish claimant to the Hasmonean Israeli Throne.
He was not claiming to be a Hasmonean; he was claiming to be a Davidite. A large number of other Davidite claimants were also executed, such as Judah of Galilee and two of his sons in AD 7, other descendants of Judah in the mid-40's, a "Yeshua of Genassereth" in AD 70 (more likely to be a relative of "our" Jesus than others of that name); and all of these deaths we know about only through Josephus, and scattered references in other chroniclers, just as in the case of "our" Jesus.
My own hypothesis is that Jesus was not a true historical person as described.
I'm sorry, that's just absurd.
Did the Zoroastrian Tradition not have Mithras, son of Ahura Mazda (Ormuzd) and Sun God? One version was Mithras was born of a rock.
The "rock" was a kind of Cosmic Egg, the primordial unity that was the universe until the "Big Bang" or "Let There Be Light" moment when Mithra emerged.
Another mainly in the Roman Empire was that Mithras was born of a human virgin in a cave (i.e. like a stable?)
No, there was never any such version in the Roman Empire: it first appears in 19th-century French anti-clerical writings, has been thoroughly repudiated by scholars, and now is found only on the Internet. We have been through this before. Mithra could not have been "born of a human virgin" because no humans (or any multiplicity of objects, of any kind) existed: his emergence was the beginning of creation.
Three magi (Zoroastrian priests) visited the son of the God.
Bull**** again. Mithra could not have been "visited by three magi" because no humans (or any multiplicity of objects, of any kind) existed: his emergence was the beginning of creation.
The Eucharistic meal used a solar disc of bread looking like the Christian "Holy Communion Host."
Bull**** again. The Mithraist communal meal consisted of beef and beer.
Mithraists used baptism.
When they slaughtered the bull, the worshippers were sprinkled with the blood. There might be some symbolic resonance here with the Eucharistic "wine" but there is scarcely a resemblance to baptism (it was not a one-time initiatory ritual, but something repeated often).
They created the concept of saving grace
No such concept appears in any version of Mithraism that we know of.
 
All I'm saying is that the Iranic variations of the Proto-Indo-European root *iag eg. Avestan yaz appear to be many and I wouldn't be surprised if it was borrowed by Hebrew speakers via the Persians while in Babylon and eventually developed into the name Yeshua. Another Avestan form I forgot to mention was Yasht "a Zoroastrian hymn that invokes a certain divinity or concept."
Again you have an "ah" vowel in the first syllable, where the short form Yeshua actually has a schwa, the minimal vowel seen at the beginning of English "about" or "ago" (Hebrew schwa means "nothing", or by extension "a trifle") and might better be written Y-shua (the y- prefix is the third-person-singular modification of the verb, like "-s" in English, turning the verb "rescue" into "rescues"; your earlier observation "it appears that the Hebrew forms were only used as proper names" is totally false, since it is the ordinary verb "to save; rescue" in both religious and secular contexts, a perfectly native form); while the long form Y-howshua has a long-o (the schwa and "h" would often be skipped over in pronunciation). And after the "sh" you have a consonant "t", as you had an "n" in another form you cited earlier, nothing that could conceivably give rise to the long-u actually seen.

You are trying to derive the name from a root which has only the most minimal resemblance. OK, so it starts with a "y" and contains a sibilant sound: so does the English word "yes", which is not the least bit related to either "Jesus" or "Yasna"; almost every language contains some word or other that begins with "y-" and has a sibilant somewhere in it.
 
Mithra could not have been "born of a human virgin" because no humans (or any multiplicity of objects, of any kind) existed: his emergence was the beginning of creation.

But apparently circa 200 BC sees the dedication of a Seleucid temple in western Iran to “Anahita, as the Immaculate Virgin Mother of the Lord Mithra”

Bull**** again. Mithra could not have been "visited by three magi" because no humans (or any multiplicity of objects, of any kind) existed: his emergence was the beginning of creation.

Yeah, but Jesus apparently was visited by the magi who have been associated with the Zoroastrians. Zoroaster was attended to by 7 wisemen. And what about the notion that Mithras birth was attended to by shepherds. Maybe Matthew drew from Zoroaster's nativity whereas Luke drew from Mithra's.

Bull**** again. The Mithraist communal meal consisted of beef and beer.

The Eucharist brings to my mind the Hom (juice) and Dron (giving thanks to food) ceremony's of the Zoroastrians.

Again you have an "ah" vowel in the first syllable, where the short form Yeshua actually has a schwa, the minimal vowel seen at the beginning of English "about" or "ago" (Hebrew schwa means "nothing", or by extension "a trifle") and might better be written Y-shua (the y- prefix is the third-person-singular modification of the verb, like "-s" in English, turning the verb "rescue" into "rescues"; your earlier observation "it appears that the Hebrew forms were only used as proper names" is totally false, since it is the ordinary verb "to save; rescue" in both religious and secular contexts, a perfectly native form); while the long form Y-howshua has a long-o (the schwa and "h" would often be skipped over in pronunciation). And after the "sh" you have a consonant "t", as you had an "n" in another form you cited earlier, nothing that could conceivably give rise to the long-u actually seen.

You are trying to derive the name from a root which has only the most minimal resemblance. OK, so it starts with a "y" and contains a sibilant sound: so does the English word "yes", which is not the least bit related to either "Jesus" or "Yasna"; almost every language contains some word or other that begins with "y-" and has a sibilant somewhere in it.

You know what? I'm far from an expert in the field of linguistics, but I do know that it's not an exact science and in my opinion the Hebrew forms and the Avestan forms do not sound far apart nor do their meanings seem far apart.

I see your point about the Hebrew being used other than a proper name. Just out of curiosity in what literary work did this form meaning "save; rescue" as you say first appear and when?
 
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