bob x
Well-Known Member
No, no, no!In Zoroastrianism: An Introduction to an Ancient Faith Peter Clark mentions the use of the Avestan root sav- and its meaning which I take it is Porkorny's sava- which according to him means "salvation" as well as "benefit."
A root that starts S in Podkorny (he has *SARVA for the "save" root which I spelled *SALWE; Podkorny uses V for a sound which was more like W, and R for a liquid that may have been either R or L) is not going to start S in Avestan: it would start H instead. Podkorny's sarva- (not sava-) is the Avestan haurva- as I have told you, twice now. Avestan sav- would have to come from something that did *NOT* start with S in Indo-European.
Of course. You are going to find similar concepts floating around everywhere in the cultural area. The problem is that you have a chauvinistic wish to see Zoroastrianism as a source, when it is millenia later than Sumerians or Semites.Well I've also noticed some connections between Zoroastrian, Sumerian, and Semitic concepts.
Berossus makes up fabulous time-intervals of thousands of years because he has no connected chronology, and has a propagandistic purpose to make Babylonia ancient: here is a discussion of the literary background to Berossus; he was trying to correct Greek authors like Ctesias and Herodotus who discuss Assyrians, Medes, and Persians at great length but mention Babylon only as a city, as if it had never been an imperial power (the Neo-Babylonian period of Nebuchadrezzar is glossed over or skipped entirely in those authors; the Old Babylonian period of Hammurabi etc. is simply way beyond their knowledge). The capture of Babylon by the Persians that Berossus refers to is simply the capture by Cyrus in 535 BCE, and his date of ~2400 BCE for it is just an absurdity; Zoroaster was somewhat before Cyrus, precise date controversial but certainly not "thousands" of years before the rise of Persia (Vitashpa, the king who sponsored Zoroaster, would be one of the kings of Anshan by that name).Though I realized its often discredited the ancient Greek placement of Zoroaster often makes me second think the possibility that the Zoroastrians may have influenced the Sumerians and the Semites long before the Persians and Jews met in Babylon. But I see your point.
Well for what its worth according this quote Zoroaster had a connection to Babylon...
"In connection with his history he [Berosus 360 B.C.] mentions the name of Zoroaster as living a period twenty-four hundred years before Jesus' time. Berosus was not a prophet, predicting the birth of this great teacher at some future day. He was simply a chronicler of facts and events, as he found them stamped in clay or burnt upon bricks. It happened that Babylonia was overrun and conquered at that distant period, and Zoroaster's name is mentioned in connection with that event." Loren Harper Whitney, Life and Teachings of Zoroaster the Great Persian
The Greek form Zoroaster, by the way, is an interesting example of a "calque", a word I used on the other thread for part-translation-part-borrow: Zarathrustra has two parts, the mysterious zarat (perhaps indeed related to Zerubabbel which we don't understand either) and a word for "star" which the Greeks therefore translated as aster.
Before it meant "borderland" apparently *pars meant more specifically "place of exile": where you would chase a group that had misbehaved badly enough to be driven out, but not badly enough to slaughter.Well another theory is that Persia means "frontier or borderland" which seems close enough to "to make sharp break," but you're the expert
By the time Semitic and Indo-European languages were diverging, we have several distinguishable roots here: in Semitic the P-R-SH "to separate" (as in "Pharisee") and the P-R-TZ "to break sharply" (as in the "breech-birth" names), and in Indo-European the *pard (Podkorny's spelling) "to break wind" root and what I called the "purge" root (I don't know Podkorny's spelling off-hand) from which I think "Persia" derives. But, you are right that these all seem "close enough": it is quite possible that if you go all the way back to Nostratic, there was just a single root *P-R-X ("X" here for an uncertain final consonant) with a meaning like "to expel".