Say I'm a white male. I KNOW of the injustice done to those who are not white males because they aren't white males. But since I am a white male I will probably never UNDERSTAND the injustice the way non-white males do. In this way, understanding is different from knowing since it can include the feeling.
I think that's a good, and flexible, analogy.
In this instance, can we say 'knowing' is objective, 'understanding' subjective? I think so. I'm thinking of the kid's complaint to the parent, "But you don't
understand!"
Philosophically, I wonder if we can equate knowing to a function of the will, understanding to a function of the intellect?
I would suggest the intellect is unhappy with saying "I know..." about something it knows it doesn't understand, whereas the will can say, with certainty, "I know..." but not understand the thing it knows?
I think I'm right in saying that, in Antiquity, there was the notion that the understanding of a thing belongs to the thing itself, and transmits itself to the knower ... so I know something is there/happening, but I don't understand it, and won't, until it surrenders its understanding to me?
In which case, I could play the wordgame and suggest that to know something is to be aware of something, however dark or ill-informed that knowing is, whereas to understand something is to stand under (geddit?) that thing's self-knowing.
So I can know something objectively, but can never understand it until I put myself in its place. I know so-and-so is in love, but not until I fall in love will I begin to understand what it's like.
I really wonder if I'm the only person in the world who make these distinctions. I'm comforted by the fact that Radar seems pretty close to my definitions.
I think (no matter how much you think my analogy garbles them) I make the same kind of distinction.
Radar's a good benchmark.