JOHN 17;3 certainly is biblical
Indeed it is Mee, but let us take the whole into context shall we?
John 17:1 Jesus spoke these words, lifted up His eyes to heaven, and said: “Father, the hour has come. Glorify Your Son, that Your Son also may glorify You, 2 as You have given Him authority over all flesh, that He should[
a] give eternal life to as many as You have given Him. 3 And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent. 4 I have glorified You on the earth. I have finished the work which You have given Me to do. 5
And now, O Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was.
And also Psalm 83:18 יֵבֹ֖שׁוּ וְיִבָּהֲל֥וּ עֲדֵי־עַ֗ד וְֽיַחְפְּר֥וּ וְיֹאבֵֽדוּ׃
Which literally translates as:
"That they may know that it is Thou alone whose name is the LORD:"
Notice the translation is Lord, not YHWH or the english variation of Jehovah. It wasn't used as the Lord's name in this verse, by the Hebrews themselves. So how could the English Jehovah even come into play when the Hebrew YHWH wasn't even used by the Hebrew authors of the passage?
Of course this Psalm verse goes with a Song, a Psalm of Asaph. And the two John and Psalms, though associated do not in this context refer to the same personage of God.
David is talking about God without understanding the nature of the Son he has not met or heard about. Jesus on the other hand is talking about God and He being of the same glory, of which He (Jesus) put away to walk with us.
Second verse, same as the first Wil (lol)