For Q
I never said "man" was sovereign in salvation. I said man had choice to accept or reject salvation.
If salvation is based on man's choice, then man is sovereign in salvation. Man would have the last word on if he is saved or not.
I never said God's fore knowledge of man's choice was reason for predestination, either. I said God is sovereign in offering man salvation.
There are only two options to God's electing someone to salvation: 1. God foresaw who would have faith and therefore elected those people to salvation. 2. God chose in and of his own free will, the right as Sovereign ruler of the universe, to elect by grace, one guilty sinner over another.
What I said is that God knows every possibilty that the universe (man included), can come to (I don't need conjecture on that point).
I agree.
And what I said is that the book of life is not "OPENED" until the day of judgement.
The names written in the book of Life were written before the worlds were. The names therein were there before the people came into existence; no one written in that book will be taken out. I base this on Romans 8:30. "And those whom he predestined he also called, and those whom he called he also justified, and those whom he justified he also glorified." Notice that there are no drop outs from the called ones. They are predestined to be justified and glorified.
And what I said was that a man can change his destiny up unto the point of death (that is he can accept the salvation of Jesus in his dying moments, but after...no).
This contradicts too many scripture, e.g., John 10:27-29, Proverb 16:4, etc., and so I'll have to label it conjecture until you can prove otherwise from scripture.
As far as Romans 8 and 1 Peter, this is communication to those who have chosen to accept Christ. At the time, my friend, not everyone knew Jesus. But those that did and accepted His gift were chosen
Where do you get that from the text? No where does it say "God foresaw faith." You would have to add that in to make your presuppossition of "free will" or "self-determining choice" make sense. I would insist on leaving the scripture as is and understand "foreknow" in the same sense as Jesus is foreknown in 1Peter 1:20 or the way God knew Israel in Amos 3:1-2, or the way God foreknew his people in Romans 11:1–2, etc.
Remember, this was written at a time when few were selected to have known Jesus.
This contradicts too many scripture. Jesus' sheep was already "foreknown from before the worlds were, or before the foundations of the world."
It was a fledgling "faith", and much depended upon the few to make or break that new faith. These were also paramount in continuing the new faith "many are called, few are chosen".
Here again you make man sovereign in salvation because you assume that God elects a man based on supposition of someone's foreseen faith. I maintain that cannot be the case for three reasons: 1. No one seeks God to even find Him (Romans 3:11) 2. No one can come to Christ in faith unless the Father first draw them (John 6:44), and 3., God gives the gift of saving faith to whom he wills. Remember, "it is not up to the man that wills or runs, but of God who shows mercy." "Salvation is of the Lord."