History of Christianity

I don't think you can take Moses as a perversion of another historical figure.

The only source on Moses I have is the Bible.

Without miracles and religious things there is no historical Moses left to ponder.

I am at a disadvantage with little background in philosophy and religion. I base my opinions not on literal tales but on what makes sense and how it fits into general history.

1. Moses supposedly lived in a bad time for Egypt. The Bible tells of many plagues in Egypt, elaborating them with magic. It is not surprising that many would leave for better land. Canaan was an Egyptian client land or colony. It would be so inviting (the Jordan Rift Valley) that any emigrants would aim for Canaan. Many would try to conquer it. After Egyptian troops were withdrawn, Moses might have clearly decided to conquer Canaan after 40 years as a nomad warlord. Naturally they would invent the idea that God promised them that land.

2. What evidence is there for Moses leading a mixed ethnic group of slaves or poor across the Isthmus of Sinai? Exodus tells that Moses followed a column of fire by night and column of smoke by day. Exact dates are lacking but that was near the time of the eruption of volcanic Mount Thera (Santorini.) It could have been the column of fire and smoke that Moses reported.

3. Moses led his people across the Isthmus to the ancient lakes and the Sea of Reeds. He could not cross until he performed magic with his rod. We do not know how long he hesitated. However, as often happens with Volcano eruptions on a fault line, earthquakes follow. This quake likely went from the Aegean-African fault south though the African-Sinai tectonic plate. Remember that big quakes often bring Tsunamis. A classical Tsunami has the sea recede after which the water returns in a giant wave as high as 100 m.

4. The water receded from the Med and Sea of Reeds. The land lifted upward in a bulge, emptying the ancient lakes. Moses, who had tapped the rocks hundreds of times perhaps, finally saw it work as the water receded. The people crossed to the high ground of Sinai.

5. The Egyptian Army was chasing them according to Exodus. They were hampered by dust and smoke (volcanic) which delayed them. When they reached the dried lakes and Sea of Reeds, they crossed after the Hebrews. Then the Tsunami came rushing back. Walls of water 100 m high (like Cecil D. DeMill) drowned the Egyptian army along with physical trauma. Egypt had lost its great army. Perhaps the loss of the Army resulted in the withdrawal of the northern Army in Canaan, which several years later left the Canaanites unprotected.

6. When Moses heard or saw that the Egyptians were leaving, he planned the conquest of the relatively unprotected Canaanites who were not experienced soldiers. Moses knew they were no match for his battle hardened Israelite horde. Indeed the militarily weak cities were no match for Moses' tough army. The Israelites under Moses' successor took the Canaanites (merchants, farmers, Olive growers, artisans, blacksmiths, carpenters, builders who seldom held a sword.)

The Geoscience fits or at least is compatible with Exodus. The exiles from Egypt must have had a leader whether we call him Moses or Mizes.

That is not the case with many other religious figures, such as King David or Muhammad. They have some miracles associated with them, but they have a human side. Everything about Moses is necessary for some ritual, some moral lesson, some kind of indispensable religious indoctrination.

David and Muhammad as well as Moses and Joshua were likely real historical figures. Many events may be attributed to magic or miracles as you say to influence religious indoctrination. There is no evidence that any miracles occurred. David used a rock sling, which is a very potent and lethal weapon in the hands of an experienced warrior. Killing an enemy with a sling is no miracle. Goliath was no giant. He was more likely a big chap and that was exaggerated to "giant."

The same could almost be said about Jesus. That is the problem with discussing various historical theories about those two. Take any action attributed to them and its possible to come up with a lesson for which someone may have put it in. I'm not insisting they are fictional but pointing out the impossibility of guessing what historical figure Moses could have been based on. He is beyond second guessing.

I think Moses, Joshua, David, Mohammad and the exodus were real events with nothing supernatural about them other than man's gift of telling a story over and over with the fish he caught getting bigger and bigger. Jesus is much more shadowy. He wrote nothing. He left no clearly identified artefacts. There were five other would-be messiahs during the same period: John the Baptist, Honi HaM’agel, Hinara ben Dosa, Simon Bar Kochba, and Apollonius. Earlier there was a Yeshua Ben Pacheria a century before who performed miracles and healing. However, he was judged and stoned to death for the sin of sorcery. The priests then hung his body on a tree. He could have been a model for a fictional Jesus with parts of John, Honi, Hinara, and Simon merged into one character.

Secondly, the story of Jesus as told by the third century was very similar to the Roman Cult version of Mithraism. Mithra was virgin born (or born from a rock), was slain, and resurrected after three days. Similar to Jesus, Mithra was the son of the God, Ahura Mazda, and was part of a trinity with the Holy Spirit (Spenta Maingu). Arian Christianity was more similar because both Jesus and Mithra were created sons of God. Tertullian invented the Catholic Trinity identified more by Athanasius into the illogical trinity of 3=1, or 1=3.

All of this data in addition to Thomas and others here is imperfect and subject to numerous alterations and edits. To me, it makes Jesus the least likely of all of them to be historically real. INO, Jesus never walked on land let alone water.

Amergin
 
"When Moses heard or saw that the Egyptians were leaving, he planned the conquest of the relatively unprotected Canaanites who were not experienced soldiers. Moses knew they were no match for his battle hardened Israelite horde."


If you take the "Good Book" though it says that the Canaanites had iron chariots so were they really that "relatively unprotected???..

See:

17:16 And the children of Joseph said, The hill is not enough for us: and all the Canaanites that dwell in the land of the valley have chariots of iron, both they who are of Bethshean and her towns, and they who are of the valley of Jezreel.
17:17 And Joshua spake unto the house of Joseph, even to Ephraim and to Manasseh, saying, Thou art a great people, and hast great power: thou shalt not have one lot only: 17:18 But the mountain shall be thine; for it is a wood, and thou shalt cut it down: and the outgoings of it shall be thine: for thou shalt drive out the Canaanites, though they have iron chariots, and though they be strong.

(King James Bible, Joshua)

Regarding Jesus I would suggest that by the third century there were already mythological overlays in the story of Jesus but this does not really in my view make a historical Jesus untenable.. It would be similar to say the legends of King Arthur that grew up around him..

As Christianty spread into pagan areas these legends became attached to Jesus. Also His teachings which one can find in the Gospel of Thomas bear resemblance to the teachings in the traditional Gospels with variations of course.. but with similar core concepts..so you have I think from Coptic, Greek sources some confirmation of an original source perhaps from Aramaic verbal tradtions.

Josephus also mentions James the Just brother of the Lord in Jerusalem as the leader of the Jewish Christians ..

http://www.religiousstudies.uncc.edu/jdtabor/james.html

Also consider John the Baptist also is mentioned by Josephus..

http://www.livius.org/jo-jz/josephus/fj02.html

Mandaean accounts also mention Jesus in re. John the Baptist..
 
Its just a trend. If they manage to get rid of their historical links they'll start wanting them back again later, but right now it makes political sense.
It never makes political sense to forget history ... it just condemns one to make the same mistakes.

In the face of looming crises however, there will be a need to limit human freedoms and reduce the ontological dignity of the human as asserted by the religious traditions.

Abortion and euthenasia is already widely practiced. Eugenics is the next up on the list. The worth of human life will be valued according to an economic unit of production (it is now) ...

Do you think this is speculating too far from the real situation?
I don't think you've mentioned European Freemasonry.

Thomas
 
Secondly, the story of Jesus as told by the third century was very similar to the Roman Cult version of Mithraism.
I think you'll find schalarly opinion is that many 'assume' to interpret Mithraism by overlaying Christian teachings.

Mithra was virgin born (or born from a rock),
There is no element of virgin birth in Mithraism.

was slain, and resurrected after three days.
There is no eviodence of resurrection in Mithraism until the 2nd century. Far more likely this was adopted from Christianity.

Similar to Jesus, Mithra was the son of the God,
Nope, he sprang from a rock. That does not make him the son of God.

Ahura Mazda, and was part of a trinity with the Holy Spirit (Spenta Maingu).
Nope, you're just plucking p[agan dieties out of thin air and putting them together.

Arian Christianity was more similar because both Jesus and Mithra were created sons of God.
Wrong.

Tertullian invented the Catholic Trinity identified more by Athanasius into the illogical trinity of 3=1, or 1=3.
No he didn't, he coined the Latin term to apply to the doctrine, he did not invent it

To me, it makes Jesus the least likely of all of them to be historically real. INO, Jesus never walked on land let alone water.
Amergin
Which shows the depths of your ignorance.

If you ask scholars (and not necessarily Christian scholars) there is more evidence to suggest Jesus lived, and more contemporary evidence, than say Buddha, even Mohammed ...

Thomas
 
Thomas said:
It never makes political sense to forget history ... it just condemns one to make the same mistakes.
That is a good point, so then it is a dangerous trend.

You mentioned European Freemasonry, and I think that is also a component of those conspiracy theories.

Amergin said:
The only source on Moses I have is the Bible.

I am at a disadvantage with little background in philosophy and religion. I base my opinions not on literal tales but on what makes sense and how it fits into general history.
Other sources you have for Moses are other people and books. In addition to the KJV you can consult Jewish philosophers, Christian seminarians, and ancient works like Josephus etc. I don't think you are at a disadvantage, except there is zero archeological evidence for Moses that I know of. There is also the thickness and weight of the Bible, which discourages you from wanting to really dig in there to test your theory, and I understand how that feels. I'm 100% the same. I read through it once but did not study anything except in fits and starts, only out of necessity over my life's span (though I have thought about it a lot). Also, conversation with other people spurs me on sometimes, like this conversation. Much of History goes beyond the scope of my education, but I'm happy to listen and admire those with a true scholarly bent.

Arthra said:
Regarding Jesus I would suggest that by the third century there were already mythological overlays in the story of Jesus but this does not really in my view make a historical Jesus untenable.. It would be similar to say the legends of King Arthur that grew up around him..
Hi Arthra. That is interesting.
Arthra said:
As Christianty spread into pagan areas these legends became attached to Jesus. Also His teachings which one can find in the Gospel of Thomas bear resemblance to the teachings in the traditional Gospels with variations of course.. but with similar core concepts..so you have I think from Coptic, Greek sources some confirmation of an original source perhaps from Aramaic verbal tradtions.
I haven't read Thomas but may have a copy. All I've heard is that its not in the main canon and is very gnostic, so for me it goes under the gnostic category. It seems complicated to learn about the relationship between Christianity and gnosticism. Some people feel the gnostics attempted to change Christianity or even that they've successfully corrupted it, and others feel gnosticism is foundational to it or at least important. Irenaeus I've only skimmed, but he talks about a gnosticism of some kind and considers it heresy. A lot of people think that gnosticism came as a result of Christianity or in reaction to it, though lately I've been hearing that its actually ancient Jewish mysticism. To me it seems complicated, but I am a bit lazy.
 
Regarding Jesus I would suggest that by the third century there were already mythological overlays in the story of Jesus...
This is the common hypothesis of those with a specific agenda, the third century being the magic 'turning point' ... it's an easy accusation to make, but it's actually a very difficult one to back up in any meaningful sense.

Whenever, as a Christian, I ask 'what overlay', an answer is rarely forthcoming, other than opinion.

Rudolf Bultmann was the major proponent of this thesis, and his assumptions have now been largely discredited, as his reasoning was shown to be at fault.

Remember also that all the written material we have was in place before the close of the first century: The Johannine writings are the last, and they can be reliably dates around 125AD.

The Pauline writings are the earliest, beginning around 50AD, and as far as I know there's nothing in a supposed third century 'mythology' that cannot be traced to Scripture.

Also His teachings which one can find in the Gospel of Thomas bear resemblance to the teachings in the traditional Gospels with variations of course..
The issue with the Gospel of Thomas is that it fails every test that critics use to discredit the synoptic gospels, but for some reason is accepted with a complete suspension of the critical faculty ... In fact, examining of the data of the GoT renders it suspect for a number of reasons.

The content of the GoT does not really sit with an historical Jesus, as presented by Vermes and other critics, nor does it sit with the orthodox Jesus, of Scripture and Tradition ... so really to say GoT is in any way reliable is to make something of a leap of faith; some have argued for a very early date, others argue for a late one.

In fact, taking all the evidence we have to hand, the strongest case is that GoT ranks among those spurious documents that were seen as myth-making from the very outset and never regarded as authentic or canonical.

Thomas
 
My remarks in my earlier post were more directed in response to Amergin you'll recall..

But Thomas your Gospel may not be authentic :) but it bears some resemblance to the Gospel sayings.. and they were called the Logia as I'm sure you know..anyway the idea was that the Sayings (the "Word") were passed down and around various places and since we have these various sources that in many cases resemble one another they all tend to support a common source..

See the interesting article that sites comparasons of the Gospel of Thomas with the canonical Gospels:

http://www.crivoice.org/thomas.html

Now as I mentioned earlier as various pagan groups became "Christian" they sometimes brought along their own baggage.. You will still see this today in my view when you consider the amalgamation of earlier native religions and say Catholicism in Latin American and among some native American groups in the South West.. so there is a time where the earlier religion and the new religion become assimilated in a kind of missha gosh..

As a Baha'i we have something along this line with new Baha'is in India.. It takes time for a new population of believers to assimilate the culture of the new religion and for awhile they are still pretty much indistinguishable from the peopel around them with a few exceptions.. but I'm suggesting something very much like this process occurred in the eastern Roman Empire as Christainity spread..

Give my regards to Paul by the way...
 
I am at a disadvantage with little background in philosophy and religion. I base my opinions not on literal tales but on what makes sense and how it fits into general history.

Since when does "making sense" have anything to do with humanity or the human condition? Does "love" make sense? Does "hate" make sense? An informed opinion considers the context and tries to understand the reality. An opinion formed on anything less holds no value. Religion is only one aspect of the human condition.

A history of Christianity, like any history, cannot be confined to its own little petrie dish in a vacuum. Any history is informed by what precedes it, and in turn informs what follows it. Likewise, those things that surround it also hold potential to influence it. History is not limited to religion; it also includes politics, art, science (or technology if you prefer), business, and other variables that are not readily reduced to a common denominator. Occam's razor does not apply when speaking of the human condition, because the subject *is* complex. Any attempt to reduce the subject to only one aspect is illogical and insincere and leads to faulty conclusions.
 
sorry, folks, but the "rebirth" part is just as important in Judaism, which is why the miqweh (ritual bath) is likened to a womb, why it must hold 40 se'ah of water, the word for which is "mayim" alluding to both the letter "mem" (numerical value 40) and to the womb shape formed by the letter itself, not to mention the 40 weeks of pregnancy. women are "reborn" monthly and periodic immersion is common in many streams of Judaism for men as well, particularly before a religious festival or the Sabbath - both also immerse on their wedding day, as it is the beginning of a new life. as for "making clean", shame on you both - I’m sure you're aware of my dislike for the language of hygiene around the concepts of tumah and tahara which I’ve written on numerous times.
b'shalom
I’m still figuring this stuff out BB. Judaism 101 is not my strongest suit, which is why I rely so much on you and Dauer to keep me straight. I had to search tumah and tahara to refresh my memory, and while I think I understand, I am left puzzled after reading Vermes’ book. By chance, and this is only me asking, is your interpretation more recent than say 300 CE? Or is this an older understanding dating before the common era? In short, particularly with the proscription of and the excommunication of those practicing “Jewish ablutions” at Nicaea, I am even more inclined to see the Christian version of baptism correspond with the Pagan counterpart.
Vermes’ discussion of Charismatic Judaism was a pleasant surprise, but it left me with more questions surrounding the notion of devils, at least in the early centuries of the common era. So how does the whole “Satan” versus “devils” thing work then, if I may ask?

Fascinating stuff, concerning the “son of man” and “son of G-d” debates, I had no idea that was even under discussion among scholarly circles.
 
OK. I can accept that — but do realize that Sol Invictus reflects a prior astrological event, and as those events — solstice and equinox — are entirely natural, there is no reason why they should not take their place in the Christian liturgical cycle. I tend to see it as Christianity 'baptizing' nature rituals, rather than incorporating nature rituals into Christianity — it doesn't alter the doctrine.
Sun worship et al is not a revealed doctrine, but rather reasoned and personified from observation of the annual cycle. There is no reason why Christ should not or could not be represented as the Sun (which corresponds to Logos); nor why the Father and Son relationship could not be imaged as a Saturn-Jupiter relation, except that what we can derive from such observations is peripheral ...
OK, you do realize that by definition nature religions are Pagan, right? Here you seem to acknowledge, freely and unabashedly, a Pagan influence on Christianity; yet chafe at the thought when anybody else suggests the same thing? Do you see the lapse in the logic, here? Either Paganism influenced Christianity, or it did not. You can’t be “a little bit” pregnant.
(There is also material evidence in Scripture that would argue for a birthdate of Christ in December.)
Hey, I like the annunciation story too, Luke is my favorite. One problem, the sheep were still in the fields. You are aware it snows in Palestine, yes? The sheep would have been brought in from the fields before then… ;)
My own view is that the natural reflects the supernatural, and that the supernatural prefigures the natural, so personally I have no problem with the incorporation of lesser truths into the greater truths.
So here we get to the crux of the matter…and I would suggest this has been an ongoing (and successful I might add) strategy the Church has employed basically since Paul, although it was taken to new heights after Nicaea. The strategy of incorporating native beliefs and superstitions into the core Christian praxis in order to make it more palatable to the masses, pun intended. This is precisely that I alluded to earlier regarding Haiti and Mexico as just two examples.
OK, but let's place them in their proper historical context. Wildman traditions are everywhere (and I believe a reflection of the sub/unconscious)? and the Mummers were mid to late medieval era? Prior to the Mummers were the Mystery Plays.
The Wildman tradition and various Mummers and Mystery Plays (I understand the Mummers to be much older than the middle ages) precede our modern Christmas…but it still remains how Christ’s birth got entangled in a *very* Pagan tradition that dates into antiquity. It’s not as easy as “oh, it’s just a natural event,” it is *much* more than that. There are so many Pagan overtures in Christmas alone…Yule logs, decorated trees, and more…that are comfortably rolled into the Christian usurping of that holiday alone. Shall we go further and discuss Easter (worshipping the rising sun) or Halloween?
OK, but then Christ presents Satan as 'a murderer' and thus reveals something about Satan that is not immediately apparent in the Jewish tradition.
Indeed there are conflicts I intend to raise for BB. According to Vermes (I finished his book today, now I want the two sequels), Jesus was likely a Jewish healer. That meant something a bit different back then, because health was directly attributed to devils…Jesus was an exorcist. There were others too, so he was not unique. I am left wondering just what the Jewish view of devils (there is even mention of a queen of the devils), particularly in light of what I have been told repeatedly regarding Satan. If I understand correctly, Satan is a district attorney on G-d’s payroll so to speak, but there also seems room for devils in one guise or another…
I tend to think far more knowledge is claimed about Mithraism than actually exists, and for a long time many have posed Mithraism as a precursor to Christianity, from which Christianity derives its rituals ... I think the scholarly opinion is now the reverse, we actually know very little, and there is evidence that Mithraism copied Christianity.
I agree there is little understood about Mithraism, but that is not to say there is nothing known about Mithraism, and I have seen absolutely nothing to suggest that Mithraism copied Christianity. That actually makes no sense to me…Mithraism came from Persia and predates Christianity by some time. There *is* suggestion that within the military ranks…where it is universally acknowledged among scholars of the period…Mithraism was a popular religion. It was secretive, and it was male oriented. What I have suggested is the possibility that within the ranks…particularly among the ranks of Constantine’s army specifically…Christians and Mithraic soldiers, among others, would have fought side-by-side, lived and died for each other as only comrades in arms can understand. There would have been an intimate intermingling of ideas, memes, thoughts and superstitions; it could not have been otherwise and still maintain a cohesive fighting unit. Constantine’s army proved itself to be a cohesive fighting unit time and again.
Again that is, I suggest, an invention. Baptism in Judaism is to make clean, but baptism in Christianity is a rebirth, of which remission of sin is a part, but not the totality. Again, this element is not present in contemporary religious traditions.
I can understand that, but I do think you've been misled by anti-Christian polemical writings. The influence of Mithraism on Christianity is now largely refuted (it's been discussed elsewhere here) and I would say the actual archaeological evidence points in the other direction.
Please show me, I have seen zero to suggest that Mithraic influence is soundly refuted regarding the formulation of later Christianity. What I have seen suggests the Mithraic baptism is a “once and for all” initiation (just like Christianity), it is for remission of sin and to make the initiate whole and pure to start their new life (just like Christianity), and just like Christianity the initiate is “saved by the blood” of the sacred bull, although Christianity substitutes Christ for the sacrifice. I do think these alone are significant points of intersection between the two faiths.
Christianity adopted pagan religious sites, and in some instances pagan religious festivals, but always by showing the supernatural Christian aspect that informs the vestigial pagan cosmological dimension.
OK, you do see how logically you contradict yourself here, right? Again, a person cannot be “a little bit” pregnant…either you are or you ain’t. Either Christianity was, or it was not, influenced by and an influence upon regional Paganism.
But the doctrines are uniquely Christian, and the liturgical practices are proto-Jewish.
But that is not the end of the story, there is more to it. The doctrines are not “uniquely” Christian if they are shared by others, particularly by other contemporary regional Pagans. The liturgical practices were proto-Jewish only for so long…Nicaea sealed the fate, at which time all semblance of Judaism was erased. (If you’re gonna continue using absolutes, I’m gonna start using them too.)
I think the evidence is there, the Church today does basically what the Church did in the time Luke was writing Acts, and as for belief, then that too is evidenced in first century writings.
But Thomas, we just got done going over this. Please refer to my previous posts which in turn refer to my references regarding the Council at Nicaea (taken by the way, from Fordham university, good Catholic school that it is). After Nicaea, anything to do with what the “Jewish” followers of Jesus taught and practiced was set aside…deliberately…they weren’t even invited to the dance!
There's been a huge industry in trying to disprove and discredit Christian doctrine — the Mithraic thing is one example of it — but following the rule of Occam's razor, it's harder to discredit and requires more assumption without evidence than the contrary.
I agree motivations can be…misguided?...when approaching this subject, and certainly this stuff has been used rather broadly to instill distrust or otherwise undermine the faith of any so inclined. Amergin, for example, is only one example of those who wish to abuse this stuff, and the typical response by the typical person is to throw the baby out with the bathwater. As I said to Amergin in my previous post, Occam’s razor is inappropriate in this circumstance. Christianity did not form in a vacuum, and it cannot be appropriately studied in a vacuum. Religion is only a portion…a significant portion, but still only a portion…of the human sociological condition. I am not making this complex, it *is* complex. To unnecessarily reduce it is not an honest enquiry into the subject matter. (I mean no slight by my comment) Other portions must be taken into account and considered.
Without doubt the view of things has changed over time — I could lay out a pattern of how the understanding of the Eucharist has changed over the centuries, and quite a critical and challenging one for Catholics at that — but the evidence for that is drawn from contemporary Catholic theology!
Do you think that for the first 300 years the Church was immune from change? Did change only occur after Nicaea?

I was thinking of a way to try to explain…If you were to pick up and transplant a person born and raised in rural China into New York City, what do you think their reaction would be? I would think the first reaction would be culture shock…no language, no commonality of foods, no common dress, no common religion or beliefs…in other words, short of simply being human, there wouldn’t be a great deal of relevant associations or commonality. Now, could a person adapt? Certainly, or they can curl up inside themselves and shun everything. Now, presuming there is good reason to stay, and there is motivation to relate to the new culture, then that person will make an effort to learn the language, adopt (at least some of) the foods and dress, and might even make a cursory bid for the sake of respect to the local religion. After a while, many years really, that person would end up with an amalgam of cultural ideas and expressions floating through his head and heart.

I made an extreme example to stress the point, but we do this everyday anyway even now. I know the UK well enough to know that you are facing some of the same cultural challenges we face here in the states. That is, how to get multiple cultures to cooperate. In first century Palestine, particularly in Galilee (according to Vermes), there was already a cultural mix clashing in the heads and hearts of the people. By the time we get to Rome more than two hundred years later, we are looking at an advanced cosmopolitan society (like New York) trying now for reasons I have already described weeks ago to incorporate yet another “sub”-culture into the mix (like rural China). For the new guy it is traumatic how much he must change to keep up, for the establishment it’s just another day at the office.

It really isn’t any wonder some things got…adjusted. It would be far more difficult to believe they were not adjusted at all and were accepted completely and totally without change… That’s just human nature and sociology.
Catholicism and the Orthodox Patriarchies have continued to maintain the Mystical (or Sacramental) element as the heart of the tradition, whereas from the Reformation on, the post-reform traditions have been continual attempts to rationalize the Mystery and, in effect, explain it away, leaving precious little more than a pseudo-mystical humanism.
I think I can grant that the effort is there, and I have no objection in that sense. I’m not so certain I agree about the “pseudo-mystical humanism” though, at least not across the board. While there are some denominations that are…intellectually motivated?, ...there are also those that are decidedly emotionally based and have no problem whatsoever swallowing mythos that doesn’t make any sense to a rational mind. It's all a mystery, you're not supposed to understand, all you've got to do is believe! ;)
From the turn of the nineteenth century, institutional religion was seen as part and parcel of the 'establishment' and the Romance Movement rejected 'organized religion' as it rejected organized industrialism — and not without reason, in some respects — and sought other ways of spiritual expression, largely by the reinvention of some perceived 'golden age' in history, hence the emergence of Wiccanism, Theosophy, etc, etc.
I don’t disagree, certainly not in a general sense, but I think this would carry us away from the discussion at hand. It’s difficult enough to focus on the formative centuries of Christianity without clouding it for others with matters that really are not germane to the issue.
... but I'm also aware that the present is largely anti-Catholic, so any anti-Catholic polemic usually gets accepted with far less critical examination than the pro-Catholic — dare I say it, but the 'Mithraism invented Christianity' thing is accepted with far less supportive evidence (I would suggest no evidence at all, in fact) and far less critical evaluation than one applies to the suggestion that surviving text evidence is reliable?
My mom was nominally Catholic, my step-dad was nominally Catholic, I was baptized as an infant, and some of the best people to cross my life have been Catholic. I am not “anti-Catholic” as such…but neither am I averse to pursuing the truth as reality. In doing so, I am not beyond ignoring pleas to forego my quest for whatever polemical reason. As Mulder was famous for saying in the X-Files series...”the truth is out there.” The trick is in finding the truth…because the matter *is* so complex and convoluted.
Baptism in the Christian tradition is a one-time act, it's an initiation and a spiritual seal, and in that sense cannot be repeated as a rite.
Covered above. Considering the excommunication of any who practiced “Jewish ablutions” at Nicaea, I don’t see any corollary…but I do see one with the Mithraic baptismal practices, short of using bull blood to perform the rite.
 
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This is the common hypothesis of those with a specific agenda, the third century being the magic 'turning point' ... it's an easy accusation to make, but it's actually a very difficult one to back up in any meaningful sense.
It’s a common hypothesis because there are lots of smoking guns pointed in that direction. After a backhanded admission that Christianity and Paganism have merged, I fail to see how you can suggest it is in any way difficult to support.
Whenever, as a Christian, I ask 'what overlay', an answer is rarely forthcoming, other than opinion.
Apologies for my delay in responding. Usually I respond from work, and the last two days have made that impossible. Today I am off, and wouldn’t you know a thunderstorm put me back over an hour, fortunately I saved my post before the power went out…
Rudolf Bultmann was the major proponent of this thesis, and his assumptions have now been largely discredited, as his reasoning was shown to be at fault.
Even a blind pig can find a truffle now and then…
Vermes has a mixed affinity for Bultmann…there are times when he refers to Bultman, and times he strongly critiques him. And that is the way scholarship *should* work, the research and arguments should stand on their merits alone instead of again being guilty of throwing babies out with bathwater because you don’t like a guy…
Remember also that all the written material we have was in place before the close of the first century: The Johannine writings are the last, and they can be reliably dates around 125AD.
That is not my understanding. What we have *complete* dates to somewhere in the fifth century as I recall, certainly the manuscripts used for the KJV date around 425, a full hundred years or so *after* Nicaea. You may be referring to some of the spurious texts, and Vermes relates to several various endings of the Gospel of Mark, for instance, among variant texts for the other synoptic Gospels as well. So it is not entirely accurate to suggest that everything is hunky-dory ever since John dotted the last punctuation mark. That is just not accurate information.
The Pauline writings are the earliest, beginning around 50AD, and as far as I know there's nothing in a supposed third century 'mythology' that cannot be traced to Scripture.
At this point Vermes has left Paul mostly alone, other than a backhanded mention that Paul wasn’t the author of the book of Hebrews, but I doubt that is anything new to those who look at these things. Since the focus of this book was on Jesus, the emphasis was on the Gospels and Acts.
The issue with the Gospel of Thomas is that it fails every test that critics use to discredit the synoptic gospels, but for some reason is accepted with a complete suspension of the critical faculty ... In fact, examining of the data of the GoT renders it suspect for a number of reasons.
Yes, you’ve mentioned this before. You have not seen me put any emphasis on the GoT, in large part for similar reasons as yourself. That does not negate everything every scholar that does mention the GoT has to offer by default. Again, blind pigs and truffles…

OK, I had hoped by this time to be able to include some references to flesh out my Mithraism suggestions, but after 3 hours and a thunderstorm, complete with the threat of losing everything I had already written, I’m going to stop here and pick up again later…
 
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Baptism in the Christian tradition is a one-time act, it's an initiation and a spiritual seal, and in that sense cannot be repeated as a rite. Three of the seven sacraments represent a 'seal of character' which are not repeated: Baptism, Confirmation and Orders.
Well, your Church doesn't look favorably on repeated Marriage either, and if the Last Rites are repeated, that's an unfortunate error...
There is no element of virgin birth in Mithraism.
If Amergin really can't tell a virgin from a rock, I can't imagine his love life is very satisfactory :p
There is no eviodence of resurrection in Mithraism until the 2nd century.
Somebody may correct me, but I don't think there's any evidence of "resurrection" in Mithraism ever.
Remember also that all the written material we have was in place before the close of the first century: The Johannine writings are the last, and they can be reliably dates around 125AD.
No: all we have from "John" at that early date is one small fragment of the trial, missing some of the verses (these are present; these are absent): ...the Jews said to him, It is not lawful for us to put anyone to death that the saying of Jesus might be fulfilled which he spoke, signifying by what death he should die. Then Pilate entered the Praetorium again, called Jesus and said to him, Are you the king of the Jews? Jesus answered him, Are you speaking for yourself about this, or did others tell you this concerning me? Pilate answered, Am I a Jew? Your own nation and the chief priests have delivered you to me: what have you done? Jesus answered, My kingdom is not of this world; if my kingdom were of this world, my servants would have fought, so that I should not be delivered to the Jews, but my kingdom is not from here. Pilate therefore said to him, Are you a king then? Jesus answered, You say rightly that I am a king, for it was for this cause that I was born, that I should bear witness to the truth, for everyone who is of the truth hears my voice. Pilate said to him, What is the truth? And when he had said this, he went out again to the Jews, and said, I find no fault in him...

As you see, the interpolations are quite severe. The "Passion" material (framework of the crucifixion narrative) was always assumed to be older than the "Discourses" (long speeches by Jesus) and "Signs" (wonder stories) even before the discovery of p59. Except for Mark, which (minus the ending and a handful of other verses) is well-preserved 1st-century material, this is the story with all of the New Testament: some of the Pauline epistles are unquestionably from Paul, but many are late pseudepigrapha; Matthew went through a complicated evolution, at first (as described by Papias c. 100) consisting only of "sayings" with no narrative (Papias contrasted it in this respect with Mark), then acquiring a narrative framework from Mark and the "fulfillments" material (OT quotes with little stories that "fulfill" them) at least by the time of Justin Martyr (c. 150) although this expanded book was not, in Justin's day, all ascribed to Matthew anymore, and finally acquiring the "Petrine" addenda (and re-acquiring attribution to Matthew) by the time of Irenaeus (c. 180); the "we narrative" in the second half of Acts seems to be genuinely from Luke the physician, but the third gospel does not appear until 130, at which time it was only called the Evangelion with no ascription to Luke or any other particular author, no association to the book of Acts, and no nativity story at the beginning or ascension at the end.
The issue with the Gospel of Thomas is that it fails every test that critics use to discredit the synoptic gospels, but for some reason is accepted with a complete suspension of the critical faculty ... In fact, examining of the data of the GoT renders it suspect for a number of reasons.
I'm sorry, but I don't really think you know anything about Thomas. Our Greek text of it is unfortunately all from fragments, but all the sayings in Greek Thomas are found in the first half of Coptic Thomas, with one exception that shows what is happening: a saying which in Greek is between two other early sayings, but in Coptic is expanded and broken into two sayings, in the latter half. As with the canonical gospels, there has been a process of elaboration, in which "2nd Thomas" (the latter, very gnostic sayings) is of a much later date than the "1st Thomas" material.

How early is 1st Thomas? Where it overlaps with the "sayings" material in Matthew and Luke, it reflects a better text. "Consider the lilies of the field: they card not, neither do they spin, yet Solomon in all his finery was not dressed so well as they": here the peculiar verb for one step in the weaving process can be turned into "they toil not" (the canonical text) by a simple copyist glitch, and the Thomas text looks original. "A wild grape has been sown in the Father's vineyard" refers to a passage in Isaiah, where the prophet asks the reader to "judge between me and my vineyard": he planted good grapes, but only be`ushiym grew; now he will give the vineyard one more chance, but if only be`ushiym grow he will just have to burn it down. That word be`ushiym is a rare one; "wild grapes" is the standard translation; it seems the "sayings" were originally in an Aramaic heavily laced with Hebrew words (there are two instances of word-play which only work in Hebrew, not even in Aramaic: "Are you proud to be sons of Abraham? I tell you, from these stones [abaniym] God could raise up sons [baniym]" and "Cast not pearls to swine [chazriym] lest they rend you [chazruwkem]"), and that whoever made the Greek translation of them used in Matthew/Luke ("Q") simply punted on the word be`ush: "A plant [phyta, a totally generic word] has been sown in the Father's vineyard."

For you to accuse people of "suspending their critical faculties" is really uncalled-for here. The opinions about Thomas derive from careful analysis of the text. The arguments for early date and late date are both on textual grounds, and I think both arguments are correct: as with the canonical gospels, I do not believe that there is such a thing as a single "date of composition" (taking it for granted that every part of a book was written at the same time as every other part, without solid evidence for literary unity, is thoughtless); I believe that the early and late parts can be segregated out with reasonable fidelity.
The content of the GoT does not really sit with an historical Jesus, as presented by Vermes and other critics, nor does it sit with the orthodox Jesus, of Scripture and Tradition ...
But it sits very well with a historical Jesus, if you do not make presuppositions about what the historical Jesus is supposed to have sounded like.
 
"For the apostles, in the memoirs composed by them, which are called Gospels, have thus delivered unto us what was enjoined upon them; that Jesus took bread, and when He had given thanks, said, "This do ye in remembrance of Me, this is My body; "and that, after the same manner, having taken the cup and given thanks, He said, "This is My blood; "and gave it to them alone. Which the wicked devils have imitated in the mysteries of Mithras, commanding the same thing to be done. For, that bread and a cup of water are placed with certain incantations in the mystic rites of one who is being initiated, you either know or can learn."
- Justin Martyr, First Apology, ch. 66:
Ante-Nicene Fathers, Vol. I
Crows, occults and soldiers formed the lower orders, a sort of catechumens; lions and those admitted to the other degrees were participants of the mysteries. The fathers conducted the worship. The chief of the fathers, a sort of pope, who always lived at Rome, was called "Pater Patrum" or Pater Patratus." The members below the degree of pater called one another "brother," and social distinctions were forgotten in Mithraic unity.
emphasis mine, -jt3
CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA: Mithraism
There is plenty more interesting information in this CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA article.
The proposed similarities between Christianity and Mithraism stem in part from Mithraism’s belief that the blood of the slain bull brings salvation, as seen in Line 14 of the Latin inscription found in the mithraem in Santa Prisca, “And you saved us after having shed the eternal blood” (Betz 77). But as Betz says in his article regarding Mithras inscriptions and the New Testament, “there is no possibility of assuming a direct dependency of either side upon the other” (64).
http://www.lagrange.edu/resources/pdf/citations/2007/religion/religion - Kacey Smith.pdf
So, let’s chase out this Betz person…
Betz, Hans Dieter. “The Mithras Inscriptions of Santa Prisca and the New Testament.”
Well, it seems this is a fairly recent (1990, a l-o-n-g way from Cumont) scholarly work that is cited pretty often, but I couldn’t get access without shelling out $35 at JSTOR. Without exception, every work that cited this one related to this discussion of the similarities between Mithraism and Christianity.
Evaluation of the relationship of early Christianity with Mithraism has traditionally been based on the polemical testimonies of the 2nd century Church fathers,
Mithraism - New World Encyclopedia
citing: Martin, Luther H. "Roman Mithraism and Christianity." Numen (1989).

Enough for today.

OK Thomas, your turn.
 
Hi Arthra —

But Thomas your Gospel may not be authentic :) but it bears some resemblance to the Gospel sayings.. and they were called the Logia as I'm sure you know..anyway the idea was that the Sayings (the "Word") were passed down and around various places and since we have these various sources that in many cases resemble one another they all tend to support a common source..
I agree, but the question then is how the tradition is interpreted.

The GoT might well be early, and it might well contain the authentic sayings of Christ, but it is to what end theses sayings were directed.

Put another way, the only way we can determine the authenticity of the GoT is by comparison to other materials, without which, we're in the dark.

I think the fact that the GoT was never seen as 'orthodox' or 'authentic' is a marker. If the GoT was written by the apostle Thomas (or a scribe noting his words) then it would have been de facto 'Scripture' no matter how difficult a text it is.

Why the community rejected it, I suggest, it because it poses many intellectual questions, but no real answers. It is like a series of koans. The early Christians had the presence of the Apostles, Peter, James and John, 'baptism' and the 'breaking of bread' which they saw as a true 'mysteries' and a real initiation into the resurrected Christ.

Now as I mentioned earlier as various pagan groups became "Christian" they sometimes brought along their own baggage..
Agreed, such is human nature. But this does not alter the central doctrine. Groups were incorporated or not according to their acceptance of the central dogmas.

You will still see this today in my view when you consider the amalgamation of earlier native religions and say Catholicism in Latin American and among some native American groups in the South West.. so there is a time where the earlier religion and the new religion become assimilated in a kind of missha gosh..
Most evidently in the use of Hellenic philosophy — primarily Platonism — in explaining the Mysteries.

As a Baha'i we have something along this line with new Baha'is in India.. It takes time for a new population of believers to assimilate the culture of the new religion and for awhile they are still pretty much indistinguishable from the peopel around them with a few exceptions.. but I'm suggesting something very much like this process occurred in the eastern Roman Empire as Christainity spread...
And we have the history of disputes that detail this process. Even in Acts we can see the tension between Jewish and Gentile Christians.

Give my regards to Paul by the way...
The Apostle? I hope I get the chance!

Thomas
 
I agree, but the question then is how the tradition is interpreted.

I think the fact that the GoT was never seen as 'orthodox' or 'authentic' is a marker. If the GoT was written by the apostle Thomas (or a scribe noting his words) then it would have been de facto 'Scripture' no matter how difficult a text it is.

Why the community rejected it, I suggest, it because it poses many intellectual questions, but no real answers.

OK, then what is your position on the book of Revelations? That book was excluded from the Canon at one time...and it sure poses a lot of intellectual questions with no answers.
 
OK, then what is your position on the book of Revelations? That book was excluded from the Canon at one time...and it sure poses a lot of intellectual questions with no answers.

It was never excluded.
 
Hi Juantoo ...
OK, you do realize that by definition nature religions are Pagan, right? Here you seem to acknowledge, freely and unabashedly, a Pagan influence on Christianity; yet chafe at the thought when anybody else suggests the same thing? Do you see the lapse in the logic, here? Either Paganism influenced Christianity, or it did not. You can’t be “a little bit” pregnant.
I'm not saying it influenced Christianity, I'm saying Christianity reveals the supernatural element behind paganism, which is natural/cosmological.

Hey, I like the annunciation story too, Luke is my favorite. One problem, the sheep were still in the fields. You are aware it snows in Palestine, yes? The sheep would have been brought in from the fields before then… ;)
OK. Maybe it's an allegory ... Maybe the combination of angels, shepherds, wise men, stars, etc., all point to something?

So here we get to the crux of the matter…and I would suggest this has been an ongoing (and successful I might add) strategy the Church has employed basically since Paul, although it was taken to new heights after Nicaea. The strategy of incorporating native beliefs and superstitions into the core Christian praxis in order to make it more palatable to the masses, pun intended. This is precisely that I alluded to earlier regarding Haiti and Mexico as just two examples.
OK. And I have consistently stated that all Christian beliefs can be traced back to the Hebrew Scriptures, and they are argued and founded on such — you have to demonstrate where doctrine is founded on pagan practice, to make your point stick.

If you can demonstrate a Christian doctrine/dogma that was incorporated from paganism, that might help?

… but it still remains how Christ’s birth got entangled in a *very* Pagan tradition that dates into antiquity.
There is actually a way of dating the birth of Christ, according to Gospel data, which puts it somewhere in December. It's to do with the birth of John the Baptist (six months prior), but I can't remember now.

There are so many Pagan overtures in Christmas alone…Yule logs, decorated trees, and more…that are comfortably rolled into the Christian usurping of that holiday alone. Shall we go further and discuss Easter (worshipping the rising sun) or Halloween?
But that's my very point ... all the things you reference are cosmological events and agrarian celebrations. Christianity transcends them, that's why the was not seen any issue with incorporating them into Christianity. They don't alter the doctrine, they are altered by it.

We have an antique Victorian Christmas card — Fr Christmas is all in green, red and white is relatively recent ...

I agree there is little understood about Mithraism, but that is not to say there is nothing known about Mithraism, and I have seen absolutely nothing to suggest that Mithraism copied Christianity.
The only places where Mithraic symbolism parallels Christian symbolism is in Rome, and that's archaelogical finds from, I think, the 2nd or 3rd century. So the implication is the followers of Mithras adopted Christian symbols as they cult was being overtaken by the expansion of the Christian cult.

There would have been an intimate intermingling of ideas, memes, thoughts and superstitions; it could not have been otherwise and still maintain a cohesive fighting unit. Constantine’s army proved itself to be a cohesive fighting unit time and again.
OK. But you'll have a tough job showing how the soldiers of the army were making policy at Nicea ... or anywhere else, for that matter.

Please show me, I have seen zero to suggest that Mithraic influence is soundly refuted regarding the formulation of later Christianity.
I suggest that's because of selective reading. Look up Mithraism on wikipedia.

What I have seen suggests the Mithraic baptism is a “once and for all” initiation (just like Christianity), it is for remission of sin and to make the initiate whole and pure to start their new life (just like Christianity), and just like Christianity the initiate is “saved by the blood” of the sacred bull, although Christianity substitutes Christ for the sacrifice. I do think these alone are significant points of intersection between the two faiths.
Actually we have next to no documentary evidence at all regarding the cult, so what you have listed is all unproven assumption. From what evidence there is, the central act of the cultus was a feast (not in any way a Eucharistic sense) ...

But that is not the end of the story, there is more to it. The doctrines are not “uniquely” Christian if they are shared by others, particularly by other contemporary regional Pagans.
But you're looking at superficialities. Many peoples practice baptism ... does that mean they all mean the same thing as Christian baptism? No.

The liturgical practices were proto-Jewish only for so long…Nicaea sealed the fate, at which time all semblance of Judaism was erased.
Well I think the semblance to Judaism was gone long before.

Early Christians attended the Temple on the Jewish sabbath, and then celebrated their own rites on their own sabbath. By 100AD Christians were forbidden access to the Temples and synagogues, so from then on the practice of the Jewish cultus would have started to fall away, only the Christian cultus remaining. As the Gentile numbers grew, so the distance gets even greater.

As the Christian cultus is seen as the fulfilment of Jewish prophecy, and as the Christians are baptised into a New Covenant in Christ, there is no need to continue the Jewish cult.

I admit that Nicea, and the Church, has been anti-semitic in its history, and we've apologised for that.

Christianity did not form in a vacuum, and it cannot be appropriately studied in a vacuum.
Quite, so one must allow for its own inherent teachings, and not assume that everything it professes was drawn in from outside. So the onus is still on you to say which dogmas and doctrines are 'foreign' and not drawn from a Jewish heritage.

Do you think that for the first 300 years the Church was immune from change? Did change only occur after Nicaea?
I think the church changes all the time ... but the doctrine doesn't, and that's my point.

Thomas
 
It’s a common hypothesis because there are lots of smoking guns pointed in that direction. After a backhanded admission that Christianity and Paganism have merged, I fail to see how you can suggest it is in any way difficult to support.
I think I've shown how you've got it the wrong way round.

Lot's of smoke, I admit, lots of assumption and guesswork ... but precious little substance.

That is not my understanding. What we have *complete* dates to somewhere in the fifth century as I recall, certainly the manuscripts used for the KJV date around 425, a full hundred years or so *after* Nicaea. You may be referring to some of the spurious texts, and Vermes relates to several various endings of the Gospel of Mark, for instance, among variant texts for the other synoptic Gospels as well. So it is not entirely accurate to suggest that everything is hunky-dory ever since John dotted the last punctuation mark. That is just not accurate information.
I'm not talking about Scripture, I was talking about such documents as the Letters of Clement of Rome, Ignatius of Antioch, Irenaeus of Lyon, etc., which are evidence of the faith of the community, Christian faith as it is believed.

Regarding Scripture, as scholars have noted, Origen for example, in the 2nd century, was so prodigious in output, and so dense in scripture reference (and he learned Hebrew to read the texts in the original), that one can almost reconstruct the entire Bible by putting all his citations together.

At this point Vermes has left Paul mostly alone, other than a backhanded mention that Paul wasn’t the author of the book of Hebrews, but I doubt that is anything new to those who look at these things. Since the focus of this book was on Jesus, the emphasis was on the Gospels and Acts.
You mean a scholar completely ignores the testimony of a well-educated and contemporary Jew, to reconstruct a biography at some 2,000 years distance?

Thomas
 
It was never excluded.

wiki:
Revelation appears to be the last of the books accepted into the New Testament canon by the two synods held for the purpose of reaching universal agreement on which documents to include. It was accepted into the canon at the Council of Carthage of 397 AD.[23] Revelation's place in the canon was not guaranteed, with doubts raised as far back as the second century about its character, symbolism, and apostolic authorship.[24] Second century Christians in Syria rejected it because Montanism, a sect which was deemed to be heretical by the mainstream church, relied heavily on it.[25] In the fourth century, Gregory of Nazianzus and other bishops argued against including Revelation because of the difficulties of interpreting it and the risk of abuse.
Book of Revelation - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

397 AD is 72 years and several Church councils after Nicaea before the book was "officially" included in the Canon. At the time of Nicaea, the book of Revelations was just another interesting book circulating among the faithful, like the Shepherd of Hermas or the Confession of Pilate.

This is nothing unknown, it is widely understood.
 
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