Ask a Spiritual Physicist

You did not ask that, you asked the proportion that would fill the sky (#136). The proportion of stars (as measured by light) is less than 1% of the nighttime sky.

I do not know the ratio of mass to space (since most mass is space and what you call empty space is filled with energy, dark energy and virtual particles). Much much less than 1% (since any atom is much much less than 1% material).

I do not see a claim that planets fill up the universe in #139. If the universe was not expanding there would be stars visible in every arc-second of every point in the sky, but they would range from "nearby" (4 lt-yrs) to infinately far away. That is not the same as saying the stars filled the sky. It is their light that fwould fill the sky.

The universe is the all energy, all mass, all space, all time. There are just parts we cannot get to, those inside a black hole, those receeding from us at faster than light speeds (nothing is going faster than light, the space-time metric is expanding so that a light particle emitted from "there", just will never get "here").
 
Okay, let us try some:

1) we use induction all the time (reasoning from example to general rule), without it the scientific method makes no sense (why Bacon is an icon in science). however, as Humne pointed out it can not be proved using logic. Philosophers have been trying for three hundred years, hence Whitehead's quip, "Induction, the Glory of Science, the embassment of philosophy" (or something like that). The paradox is that we use induction all the time in science (and in baseball, we know where to go to catch the grounder, hop and all, because we assume it will behave "as if" it were any of the thousands we have caught before) and it works all the time (within reason) but there is no reason to believe it should work even once! (wiki "the problem of induction")

2) we use higher mathematics all the time (anything more complex than simple arithmetic). Yet it is inconsistent, it cannot be proved (that is what Goedel's Theorem is all about wiki it if you need to). Yet these assumed to be true by faith structures "fit" the universe quite well (see Minkowski space and the Schroginger Wave equation or, the extreme case, Superstring or Twistor Theory). The paradox is that even algebra requires faith, we assume it will poduce the right answers even though we cannot prove it!

I really know you are not asking about that, so let's get to the Paradoxes of Physics.

3) In the beginning of the universe or under special curcumstances of gravitational collapse the density of matter at a point becomes infinate (it is not solveable with the math of General Relativity). This is a black hole (wiki it). Nothing can leave it (the gravity is so strong that light just stops at the surface) and anything that gets to the surface from the outside diappears into the black hole (think of a real hungry teenager). What we know of as space and time and energy and matter simply cease to exist in the black hole. Actually, it is a little more complex than that. The singularity (where mass density goes to infinity) exists at a point. It is surrounded by something (we do not and cannot know what, physicists make lots of guesses about it) and on the "outside" of this something is the event horizon (wiki it) where gravity is so strong that light cannot escape. The paradox is that a regaion of the universe exists (or existed in the past in the case of the big bang) that we simply cannot know in any physicalist way (this due to the equations of the untimate materialist, Einstein).

4) time keeps going for the entity aproaching the event horizon (a person would sense the passage of time and a clock would register the passing of time in seonds, minutes and hours). However, from the point of view of someone "outside the influence" of the gravitational field the entity approaching the event horizon slows down to the point where they freeze at a point in time. The paradox is that time can simultaneouly stop (yes, this is an approximation, but you tell ge how close to zero you need to get and I will tell you how long it takes the event to freeze) and flow on without noticeable change, depending on where you are (it stops for the entity away from the horizon and continues for the one nearing the horizon). (wiki "The Twin Paradox" for something real similar)

5) a quantum event "just happens" it has no cause in the sense that the cause has to preceed the event. You want to do this on a sunny day or infront of a very bright light. Take apart two pair of polarized sunglasses (the cheap plastic kind or the 3D glasses from the theatre). Hold one right lens up, then take the left lens and put it right on top of the right one (for 3D glasses they must be at 90 degrees). All that happens is the light becomes (about) twice as dim. Now rotate one lens ninety degrees. All light stops coming through. Now have someone else put a third lens at 45 degrees to the first two. Put the lens in front of the two, no change. Put it behind the two, no change. Put them between the two, ah, a little light comes through. What you have done is performed a quantum experiment. Imagine you could slip that third lens it really, really fast or that the two lenses were really, really far away. Putting the third lens in at some point (if the speed was near light speed or the distance was like between here and the moon) when the third lens is added the person watching the result would see the dim light "before" you got the third lens into place. The paradox is that causation can happen before the effect. (wiki "retro-causation")

6) imagine the double-slit experiment (wkii if you do not know what it is). A lightbeam shines on two slits in a priece of metal. If the slits are narrow enough and the right distance apart, the pattern on the wall will be a set of dark and light lines called the interference pattern (like the interference pattern between two waves on a still lake cuased by two rrocks impacting closely together). Conver one slit. The pattern on the wall is merely a patch of light going from dark to light to dark again. Now slow down the rate at which the lightwaves get to the slit until you know there is only one wave at any time between the light source and the wall (think of this as turning down the brightness in a television). The pattern now becomes a set of flashes. This is caused by particles passing through one slit and hitting the wall. Put a piece of old-fashioned filem on the wall where the light patch was before, come back after an hour or so and develop it and you will get an image that looks just like that bright patch. Open the second slit and you will see a set of flashes again. Put the film on the wall, come back in an hour and develop the film. You will have an image of the interference effect. Here is the paradox: you know the particle of light hits the wall as a particle (that is what causes the film to expose) but in the last case the only explanation (remember, we are only letting one particle at a time go through the apparatus) is that the particle interfered with itself to cause the interfernce pattern, which was caused by the particle hitting the film. You have just shown how a "piece" of light can be a particle and a wave at the same time.

I can keeep gpoing on. Schrodinger's cat (wiki it if you have to). The probability is 50% that the cat is alive and 50% that the cat is dead. If that cat is "mere material" (does not have a consciousness, since true materialism, what science does, assumes even our thoughts are mere by-products of brain chemical and electrical stuff, this is a no-brainer for a strict materialist like our scientist here) and the quantum event (usually the decay of some radioactive paricle) is known to have either happened or not happened, the cat is alive and dead until we open the box to "measure" the quantum event. The quantum event's "probability wave" "collapses" (called the "collapse of the wave function", wiki it) to either did not decay (in which the cat is alive) or did decay (in which the cat is dead). We cannot know which until we "measure" or "observe". In other words, it is our action (opening the box) that determines the aliveness/deadness of the cat.

Okay. Look up "Wigner's Friend" and "the EPR Paradox" and "Bell's Theorem or Inequality" on Wiki or Stanford's Encylopedia of Philosophy.

The bottom line: the world (if logic and relativity and quantum are correct) is a lot wieder than you think. In addition read the forgoing discussion with bakhtijan about most of the universe being hidden from us due to "redshift" and "the expansion of the universe".

The role of metaphysics in philosophy is to take these real paradoxes and resolve them by postulating a consistent and logical explanation. Science does not do this, we scientists take these paradoxes as "Reality".

An example of one such metapysic is "Bohmian Mechanics" (wiki). Where the physicist David Bohm postulates an additional quantum term (a "hidden variable") that allows us to say "the Cat is either alive or Dead, the problem is we cannot know which except by looking in the box". Warning there may be as many as ten or twelve metaphysical explanations for any of the paradoxes I mentioned or listed.

Phew!

Pax et amore omnia vincunt.
 
Addressing a mistake I made (somewhere on the site). The three most important words (to me) are:

daats'i -- roughly Navajo for "maybe" (per dictionary) but used colloquially to mean "yes", "no", "perhaps", "possibly" and all situations in-between. Meaning "the world is not certain".

the lack of a work for time in Hopi -- "when" (future sense of now) "hisat", "then" (past sense of "now") "paasat", "now" "yaasat". You would think "time" to be "sat" it isn't... the closest is "pahanatewa" which literally means "white man's sun" or "clocktime".

"grok" -- Martian for "drink" or "thou art G!d".
 
So what is a physical paradox? Is it something that defies reality? Or is it simply something that we have not yet been able to explain? Lack of information, an incomplete or faulty model or theorem, erroneous thinking may all be capable of producing what seem like paradoxes but which one day will no longer be classified as such. 

Perhaps some things will always remain as paradoxes because they are beyond the comprehension or capabilities of our minds and computers. Thus, this does not mean there is something yet to be explained (no matter how much effort we expend), such paradoxes would have to remain as part of our reality,  reminders of our limitations in this awesome universe.
 
I do not understand a "physical paradox". If you mean something that exists outside ourselves that is paradoxical, like a gestalt picture, yeah, they exist. I think real paradoxes are all mental (think liar's paradox or barber paradox), they all have to do with the possibility of defying logic.

If logic is the "ruler" than there are lots and lots of paradoxes and they mainly stem from our inability to know the "truth". The classic is Schrodinger's cat as the "measurement paradox". We cannot know the state of the quantum system (one particle or the cat) until we make a measurement or observation. Therefore we can imagine the cat both alive and dead OR we can imagine the cat is either alive or dead because its consciousness made the observation (or there is some hidden unknowable varaible) and we can never know until we make our own OR the cat neatly splits the universe into two, one where the cat is alive, one where it is dead.

The first solution is the Copenhagen Interpretation. The second is a Whiteheadian interpretation (my own). The third (with the hidden variable in parentheses) is Bohmian. The last is many-minds or many-worlds. Regardless of which is true (and to our knowledge there is no way to test) the original paradox remains -- it "seems" logically inconsistent that the cat can be in any way alive and dead.

I think you have it... they "are beyond the comprehension or capabilities of our minds". They might get resolved if we discover something new, but when they get resolved they are proven not to have been a paradox in the first place.

Two examples of this. There was a paradox known as the "ultraviolet catastrophe". An electron orbiting a nucleus "had to" emit ultraviolet light and collapse into the nucleus. The original Bohr quantum theory explained why this was not so.... the paradox was solved. There was a paradox known as "the incommensurability of the ether". The effect of the ether (an invisible substance that vibrated to "make" light waves) could not be measured (see Michelson-Morley experiment). Lorentz explained this with the Lorentz contraction, where measuring devices got shorter and clocks got slower the faster they went. Einstein explained this with special relativity theory and the paradox was solved.
 
See good old wiki 'List of paradoxes' for types. I meant those in the material universe as opposed to say economics, language, philosophy...

'This statement is false'...
 
The Paradox of "emptiness" is "Something-ness"

The Paradox of "Zero" is "One".

The Paradox of "being" is "not-being"

The Paradox is "Life" and "Noo-life" are supplimentary and mutually inseperable.

And so it be.
 
Okay, Snoopy. And thaks for the reference. I will begin at "physical paradox" on wiki, and try to look at each one inorder.

First the paradoxes of relativity theory: twin's paradox, ladder paradox, submarine paradox, Ehrenfest's paradox, Suppllee's paradox, Mocantu's paradox, Trouton-Noble paradox, Hawking's paradox.

Then the quantum paradoxes: EPR paradox, Schrodinger's paradox, extinction paradox, Hardy's paradox, Klein's paradox, Mott's paradox, Devoret's paradox, the pseudo-telepathy paradox.

Some observational/metaphysical prardoxes: dark matter, dark energy, matter/anti-matter asymmetry, Pioneer paradox, heat death paradox, GZK paradox, Fermi's paradox.

That gives me 23 to start on--they are, I think, all the classical physical paradoxes you are speaking of (even though I will try to formulate their solution as logical paradoxes). I may not be successful!
 
First Paradox: The Twin Paradox. I shall use the data and information from http://www.phys.unsw.edu.au/einsteinlight/jw/module4_twin_paradox.htm

Jane leaves for a trip (in space of course) to a point 2.67 light years distant (the distance light would travel in 2.67 earth years) at 2/3rds the speed of light (average velocity). The trip will take 8 years according to clocks on Earth (Joe, Jane's twin stays on Earth). However, Jane's local time (the time she measures in the spaceship) will show that the trip takes 6 years. The paradox is "what happened to the two years that Jane 'lost'?":mad:

Time is a local concept (see http://www.kitada.com/ for the best scientific analysis of time I know of and http://xxx.lanl.gov/abs/gr-qc/0110066 for an explanation--really hard math--of local time). That runs contrary to what we experience, if you live in White-man's culture with the god-of-the-timepiece always present).:D

Western culture defines time in terms of the (now outdated) Newtonian or Universal Time. That is if one second passes here, one second must pass there, regardless of how far away there is, how fast it is going or how quickly it is accelerating. This Universal Time is wrong and we knew that before Einstein. Basic electro-magnetic (EM) theory (Maxwell's Equations) can be used to show that the speed of light must be a constant. That means it must be the same regardless of where you are, how fast you are going and how quickly you are accelerating (for background see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Michelson%E2%80%93Morley_experiment). :confused:

In those days all physicist “just knew” there was a luminiferous ether which was the “stuff” that vibrated to transmit light waves (like water vibrates to transmit ocean waves). Well the Michelson-Morley experiment showed there were no measureable effects of the ether (which there had to be). It showed that length and time “contracted” just enough in the direction of travel to keep the speed of light (measured in meters per sec) constant. The amount is found using the Lorentz contraction (FitzGerald–Lorentz contraction in “physics-speak”). Which, in turn, was used by Einstein in his Relativity Theory because it is the best approximation to what we think happens.

Physicists so hated giving up the notion of the ether that Einstein did not win the Nobel Prize for Relativity but for his papers on Quantum! :pThe MM experiment was repeat many dozens of times (see the wiki article above) and, except for some questionable statistics, yielded the same results time after time.

That the MM experiment, the Fitzgerald-Lorentz contraction and Relativity all show is that time must “slow down” relative to speed (so the speed of light stays the same). Other proofs of this are things as mundane as corrections which have to built into GPS software to compensate for their velocity relative to the Earth to real mind-bogglers like the fact that particles travelling close to the speed of light that we could not measure because of their very short “lives” are measureable because their thousandths of a millionth of a second “stretch” into thousandths of second in Earth-time.:eek:

MORAL: There is no “Panhanatewa” (White-man sun or time in Hopi), there is no Universal Time, there is only the time we experience.:cool:
 
Didn't God while Incarnate on our celetial sphere proclaim?:

"Time I am, destroyer of the worlds, and I have come to engage all people." ---???

And didn't a Manhattan-ite Ivy-league Physicist cite the same when asked to comment on his bulleyed release of innate energy?

So Im prompts me to ask:

What does it mean that, here in the material world, when God incarnated . . . He was Time is Death Personified?

Is God indeed [when He's present within the Material World] Death Personified?
 
Yes. In the end, every event must cease. All experiences have an end. The end of all of them is the end of the universe (the material world).

But, here is how I see it, those experiences and events have a mental aspect also. Part of that mental aspect is G!d. So the end of, say, my mental processing in the material realm, may be my Death (as a material being) the end of the event that is me. However, the mental part (insofar as it has impacted or maifested in the experience that is G!d or my children or my work) may continue on.

Pax et amore omnia vincunt.
 
Aaaaaagh radar! Please don't go to all that trouble! I only referenced that list to show what I meant by physical paradoxes!
 
Next Paradox: the ladder paradox (see Ladder paradox - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia or twin and ladder paradoxes help.. really bugging me) also known as "Man and Grating" or "Bar and Ring" Paradox (in that same expalnation covers both).

Paradox. There are two observers (Joe and Jane, again). Joe can run at near light speed, he has what was a 10' ladder (as measured when he was still), gets up to speed (the speed of light divided by the square root of 2) and runs through a 12' garage (measured, again when he was still). Jane his twin (who stays in the gargare and does not run) sees the ladder as fitting into the 10' garage and Joe sees the garage shrink from 10' to about 8 foot, and hence is way too long to fit in the garage. PARADOX: Why does the ladder shrink for Jane but the garage shrink for Joe?

Anser tomorrow!

Pax et amore omnia vincunt!
 
Okay, continuation of Entry #158.

Paradox: as Joe runs through the garage (at .7 the speed of light) his twin Jane (who is not running) now measures the 12' ladder Joe is carrying to be 10', so it will fit in her 10' wide garage. However, Joe sees the garage as having shrunkin to 8', so obviously the 12' ladded (measured from his point of view) will not fit.

Paradox Statement: How can the ladder be both 12' and 10' long and the garage 10' and 8' wide at the same time?

As in the previous paradox, the secret is the Lorentz Contraction. In Janes frame of reference, the garage (which is in Jane's frame of reference) remains unchanged at 10' but the ladder Joe has in his hand shrinks to 10', so it could fit in the garage. In Joe's frame of reference, the ladder (which is in his frame of refernce) stays 12' long, but he measures the garage as being 8' long. This apparent contradiction happens because the speed of light must be invariant. Joe and Jane must both measure it as c. Because Joe is running at .7 c, for his c to remain constant, length must shrink by a corresponding factor (it is not quite this easy, but pretty close) so he now measures both c and the length of the ladder as what they were in the beginiing.

However, he must also measure c in Jane's frame as reference as c. Because his length as shortened, those of the "world at rest" (Jane's frame of reference from Joe's) shrink for him (to make up for the time dilation from the Twin Paradox)... so he now measures the garage as being 8' wide. The example can be reversed to expalin Jane's perception.

There is no paradox. "Time" and "length" must conform to the Lorentz equation to keep c invariant at both the "at rest" and ".707 times the speed of light" frames of refernce and when making measurements from one to the other. Time exists (see twin's paradox) as only local time (there is no Universal or Newtionian Time), and the ladder paradox shows the same must be true for length. The logical conundrum is that Jane "sees" the ladder as fitting, Joe "sees" the ladder as even being longer in relation to the garage as before. Our brains want what we see (objective reality to some) to be not relative from one person to another (except for parralax or optical illusions).

The paradox would be that if Joe came to an institaneous stop the ladder would fit (as Jane saw it), would be 2' too long (as it is), or would be 4' too long (as Joe saw it). Once Joe and Jane's velocities were the same, which do you think would be the case? (Hint: use common sense, not logic not math and not measurements and not perceptions).
 
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