I don't think so. More likely it was translated from Greek.
See RabbiO's response.
I understand that most of the NT was written in Greek .. so words like "church" or "rock" are a translation, and we can't be sure if what Jesus actually said implied something different.
The Interlinear Bible is a direct translation, although there are a few carry over grammatical errors done deliberately (I've seen them, just not committed to memory), but by and large (on the order of 99.999%) it is direct word for word translation from both Greek and Hebrew.
The KJV is what I cut my teeth on, and still my go to, and the history behind that translation brings to light some of the issues you point to. A lot of folks are not aware the Puritans, the same ones chased out of England to found Plymouth colony, are the ones that instigated the KJV. I've forgotten the names of the men involved, but the Archbishop of the COE convinced the King that if a vernacular English Bible was to be printed, then they (COE) should also be allowed to participate and have the final say. So while Puritan scholars did do a good bit of the heavy lifting from the Textus Receptus (to my understanding still the oldest complete manuscript), COE scholars also contributed and in the case of disputed translation the Archbishop had the final say...and why words such as "church" and "bishopric" made their way into the final version. Note too, the Catholic Church hurriedly created their own English language version when word got to the Pope that the English were working on a vernacular translation, and why we now have the Douay Bible.
To head off protests that there were earlier English translations, yes there were, and they were sectarian and privately translated. The KJV was sponsored by the court of King James with participation from the COE, though as I said it was instigated by the Puritans.
I also have a reprint of the 1611 KJV in my collection, and it includes intertestamental Apocrypha and a letter from the translators to the King and another letter to the people. Worthwhile if you can find a copy. (I love it for the "KJV only for me!" crowd - ask if they've read Bel and the Dragon? It's in the 1611 KJV)
APOCRYPHA KJV (kingjamesbibleonline.org)
Words are tricky .. they have implied meanings, and translators can't always capture intended meanings.
OK, so do you read the Qur'an in the proper Arabic? I have read those Muslims who claim it is only accurate in the original language.
Anyhow, assuming that it is "spot on", still different sects/creeds will claim that it means THEIR church
That's an occupational hazard everywhere you turn.
For me, this particular verse does not show that Jesus intended to start a new religion.
That is your prerogative, as long as you understand others may have a different prerogative.
More controversy within the Christian camp.
Islam has none? I already pointed to the Battle of the Camel, the first schism in Islam, for intents and purposes immediately after the death of the Prophet.