I have always been fascinated with biblical prophecy. In my study bible, there is a section that lays down 40 major OT prophecies concerning Jesus. I have read that taken together that the chances of any one person fulfilling all 40 of these prophecies is astronomical.
But looking at these prophecies up close, I find some of them wanting. For example, Isaiah 7:14 say, "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name, Immanuel." (Immanuel meaning God is with us) Now on the surface, it appears to be obviously referring to the virgin birth of Christ. But when you look into the context of Isaiah chapter 7, the backgroung for this verse has Ahaz, king of Judah, trying to deal with Rezin, king of Syria and Remaliah, king of Israel (the kingdom of Israel was divided after Solomon's reign). Ahaz gets a word from Isaiah telling him that God is with Ahaz, and that Syria and Israel will not stand against Judah. Then Isaiah gives Ahaz comfort in the form of a sign of the birth of a baby boy. And that before the child knows to refuse evil, God will defeat Syria and Israel. In Isaiah 8:10, it says, "Take counsel together, and it shall come to nought; speak the word, and it shall not stand: for God is with us". So it seems that this is a prophecy meant for King Ahaz and the kingdom of Judah, that God will be with them in this trying time of these adversaries, namely the King fo Israel and the king of Syria. And that this prophecy was fulfilled in that day.
Why then is this prophecy, which already came to past, attributed to Jesus in the NT (Matt. 1:23)?
I have similar questions on other prophesies, but I'd thought we'd deal with these one at a time. Thank you.