So I am suggesting 'taken', 'up' and the 'cloud' that received Him, are analogous terms loaded with meaning.
You're right about the loaded with meaning part, but only understood as analogous? Christian writings shows us the literal meaning of terms like "up" and "presuppose a tiered hierarchical cosmology," which the Jesus group borrowed from its neighbors.
Check this out:
"In the Gospel accounts of the post-resurrection Jesus, his ascension is understood as going
up into the heavens, and his coming again as a coming
down from the heavens. The New Testament authors may have been using this language metaphorically, as many scholars argue, but (as we have already noted) this should not obscure the fact that they were using
these metaphors because of their cosmological assumptions . . .
These presuppositions are even more explicit in the eschatology of patristic theologians like Origen (cf. Lyman, 1993). Noting Jesus' prayer for the disciples -- 'I will that where I am, these may be also' (Jn 17:24) -- Origen explained that Jesus passed 'into' the heavens (or globes), and suggests that this also applies to the resurrection of believers. In
On First Principles he argued that when 'the saints shall have reached the celestial abodes, they will clearly see the nature of the stars one by one, and [will come to understand] why that star was placed in that particular quarter of the sky, and why it was separated from another by so great an intervening of space [and . . .] what would have been the consequence if it had been nearer or more remote' (II.11.7) . . .
In his
Almagest Ptolemy compiled and combined the dominant cosmologies of his era, relying most heavily on Aristotle. Although it was written in the 2nd century AD it was not made widely available to the broader Latin-speaking theological world until the medieval period. In the
Summa Tehologiae Thomas Aquinas accepted Aristotle's notion that the heavenly bodies were moved by spiritual 'intelligences' (angels), and that these movements were causally related to the movements of bodies on earth. He acknowledged three heavens beyond the spheres of the planets: 'the first is the empyrean, which is wholly luminous; the second is the aqueous or crystalline, wholly transparent and the third is called the starry heaven' (
SumTh. I.69.1). Like Origen, his discussion of the ascension focuses on explaining Jesus' movement through and beyond the heavenly spheres, but his description is shaped more explicitly by Aristotelian cosmology
(SumTh. III.57) . . .
Under the pressure of the Copernican revolution the logic behind the idea of Jesus' ascent and descent, of a movement 'up' and 'down' through the cosmos, which had been presupposed in the New Testament as well as many of the early creeds, began to erode . . .
Written during the same decade as Newton's Principia, Francis Turretin's Institutes of Elenctic Theology depicts the ascension by maintaing that 'Christ went up locally, visibly and bodily from the earth into the third heaven or seat of the blessed above the visible heavens . . . by a true and local translation of his human nature" (XIII.18.3) . . . In the late 19th century Charles Hodge, who relied heavily on Turretin, resists speaking of the ascension as a movement 'up,' but continues to insist that Jesus' risen body 'takes up a definite portion of space.' The ascension 'was a local transfer of his person from one place to another; from earth to heaven. Heaven is therefore a place. In what part of the universe it is located is not revealed . . . (but) it is a definite portion of space where God specially manifests his presence' (1981 [1982], 629-30)" (Shults 116-18).
Source:
Shults, Leron.
Christology and Science. Burlington, VT: Ashgate Publishing Company, 2009.
Conclusion: the 'up' and 'down' analogy comes loades with a tiered hierarchical cosmology and, besides, its bogged down in Aristotle's concept of the cosmos, so why continue to use it?
OK. As I said with analogy — it's the best we can do. I think in the absence of anything better, soul works fine. Why invent new terms when one doesn't even understand the old one properly?
Well, how do you understand the word soul? Do you equate it with having the powers of intellect and will, for example? If so, this is problematic. Here's an example: "They [Reformers and early modern theologians] accepted the basic countours of faculty psychology, in which the soul is understood to rule the body through the powers of the
intellect and
will . . . .
In early modern science the understanding of the relation between the body and the soul was deeply shaped by Rene Descartes, who argued for a radical dualism between the (extended) material body and the (thinking) immaterial soul. In Cartesian anthropology strong distinctions were made among the 'faculties' of the soul (the intellect, the will and affections) and between these soulish powers and the human body . . .
The sciences of neurobiology, however, have shown how human cognition is deeply rooted in and dependent upon the electro-chemical and neural functions of the brain. In fact, all 'reasoning' (and 'willing') emerges out of and is shaped by the 'feeling' of the embodies brain. Higher cortical processes depend upon and are regulated by the functioning of various parts of the limbic system, which are linked through the brain stem into the whole energetic network of the body as it responds to its environment. Rationality could not have evolved, nor can it emerge within an individual, apart from the emotional responsivity of the biological organism. As neuroscientist Antonio Damasio argues:
'This is Descartes' error: the abysmal separation between body and mind, between the sizable, dimensioned, mechanically operated, infinitely divisible body stuff, on the one hand, and the unsizable, undimensioned, and moral judgement, and the suffering that comes from the physical pain or emotional upheaval might exist separately from the body. Specifically: the separation of the most refined operations of the mind from the structure and operation of a biological organis.' (1994, 249-50)
The main point is that what we once called the faculties of the soul are now explained as registers of the whole human organism whose mental functioning emerges out of brain processes embedded within a feeling body . . .
If one begins with ancient Greek or early modern faculty psychology, with a concept of 'person' as a soul with the powers of intellect and will, and projects this onto the divine Logos (or God as a single subject), a familiar set of conceptual difficulties inevitably arises. How are the 'faculties' of the divine Logos and the man Jesus related? Does Christ have two wills and two minds? If so, are they mingled together or do they co-operate somehow? If he has only one will and one mind, do these have divine or human attributes (or powers) or some combination of both? (Shults 35-7)"
Source:
Shults, Leron.
Christology and Science. Burlington, VT: Ashgate Publishing Company, 2009.
Well it's evident from the text that something's happening. Jesus appears, and disappears, yet His body is as physically present to His witnesses...
I don't think so. What I reject is the limitations you place on the event. I'm saying it's a supernatural event, therefore we cannot explain it fully.
. . . and, as you clearly pointed out, I'm saying we don't have to speak of it as a supernatural event.
No I didn't. You didn't express that at all, you just made derogatory remarks about Christians beliefs. That kind of talk leads nowhere.
I inserted beliefs into this; I think you slightly twisted the way I'm coming off.