We can also see that Jesus also informed us that he was not the same essence of God. Many Bible verses can and will support this.
And there are verses that declare He is God, so the task is to resolve the apparent contradiction.
The Prologue of John is clearly such a declaration.
And the verse in Colossians ...
"In him all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell, and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether on earth or in heaven, making peace by the blood of his cross." (Colossians 1:19–20)
... is a staggering statement,
one, simply because of what it says, and
two, because it's reckoned to be taken from a liturgical hymn sung by the early Christian communities – which means this, a profound Christology, had been written and was being sung by the faithful, and the author of Colossians – either Paul, a secretary or a Pauline disciple (the authorship of the letter is disputed, but the question remains unproven) – folded it into the text.
If from Paul, this is dated around the early 60s, while he was imprisoned in Rome. If not, it's latest date is put around 90AD.
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John 1:18 KJV No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
I like the literal translations of this verse, as they give more clarity if what is being said, without interpretation (there are many translations that include interpretation)
Begotten is the key here, what is begotten is the Holy Spirit, which becomes what is "Annointed" unto Jesus.
I think you're confusing the issue here, as no text implies what you imply.
Also, and perhaps more germain, the word 'begotten'
is an interpretation, it's not a literal translation.
The Greek text reads:
ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός – ho monogenēs huios – rendered 'the only-begotten Son'
A literal translation of monogenēs is 'unique' or 'one of a kind'.
A literal reading of the text would more accurately be:
"No one has ever seen God; the one who is uniquely (God), who is in the Father's breast, that one has declared him"
From wiki:
Monogenes has two primary definitions, "pertaining to being the only one of its kind within a specific relationship" and "pertaining to being the only one of its kind or class, unique in kind".
We can see both definitions apply to the Son, the first in regards to His relation to the Father, the second as regards His own person.
Its Greek meaning is often applied to mean "one of a kind, one and only".
The term is notable outside normal Greek usage in two special areas: in the cosmology of Plato and in the Gospel of John. As concerns the use by Plato there is broad academic consensus, generally following the understanding of the philosopher Proclus (412–485 AD).
Some interpretations of the word "unique" attempt to preclude birth, yet the full Greek meaning is always in the context of a child (genes). A unique child is also a born child, hence the full meaning of the word "begotten" as found in John 3:16 (KJV), for example. In applying this to Christ's begottenness, He is unique (virgin birth, for example), but also still the Son of God by birth.
I see this is What we know of God, essence of the Holy Spirit, which is begotten of God.
But this is neither a literal reading nor a viable interpretation of the text – it's a distortion.
The path I have taken is that I also see that "Annointment", of the Holy Spirt, God has given to all His chosen Messengers in various levels of Intensity.
That is not disputed, as even here you clearly recognise a distinction between Jesus as Messiah and 'anointment' which also applies in a strictly human context – Jewish High Priests were annointed in office, for example, the by elders.
www.newadvent.org