Jesus' use of Son of Man was not always spoken of in the first person nor could it directly be linked to Jesus at all times.
Apart from the NT,"son of man"is most commonly used in Aramaic as a noun( a man/the man) or as indefinite pronoun(one/someone).
According to Geza Vermes the climax of the dream in verse 13 of daniel where it states "one like a son of man" represents "the saints of the Most High", that is to say, the Jewish people(Dan 7:18,22,27) and this collective interpretation seems to have recently been confirmed by the first century bc Aramaic Daniel Apocryphon from Qumran.
How about this one? Mark 14:62 ( son of man sitting at the right hand of the mighty one.
Matthew 25:31-33 Jesus says the sheep will be on the right side of the Son of Man.
This is confusing here. isn't Jesus supposed to be at the right hand of God? The right is described as being occupied by both the son of man and the shhep. the throne is occupied by the son of man in Matthew and by God in Mark.